What is a sign of fetal distress?

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Intrapartum-Related Complications Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is a sign of fetal distress?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding signs of fetal distress during intrapartum complications is crucial. The correct answer is C) repetitive late decelerations. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to compromised oxygenation to the fetus. Repetitive late decelerations suggest a consistent pattern of fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention to prevent adverse outcomes like fetal hypoxia or acidosis. Option A) prolonged moderate variability is actually a reassuring sign of fetal well-being, indicating a healthy autonomic nervous system. Option B) accelerations are also positive signs, showing a responsive and healthy fetal cardiovascular system. Option D) variable decelerations can indicate umbilical cord compression, which may lead to transient fetal hypoxia but are not necessarily indicative of distress unless they are severe or persistent. Educationally, recognizing fetal distress signs is vital for healthcare professionals involved in labor and delivery care. Understanding these signs can guide timely interventions to optimize maternal and fetal outcomes, highlighting the importance of continuous fetal monitoring and prompt action in managing intrapartum complications.

Question 2 of 5

What is the most common cause of placenta accreta?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and intrapartum-related complications, understanding the etiology of placenta accreta is crucial. The correct answer is B) smoking. Placenta accreta is primarily caused by abnormal placentation where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for placenta accreta due to its vasoconstrictive effects on uterine blood vessels, leading to poor placental implantation and increased risk of abnormal placentation. Option A) malnutrition is not directly linked to placenta accreta. Adequate nutrition is important during pregnancy, but malnutrition alone is not a primary cause of this specific complication. Option C) previous cesarean birth is actually a known risk factor for placenta accreta as it can lead to abnormal placentation due to scarring of the uterine wall. However, it is not the most common cause as smoking has a more direct impact on placental implantation. Option D) obesity is also a risk factor for placenta accreta, but it is not as commonly associated with the condition as smoking. Obesity can contribute to a variety of pregnancy complications, but it is not the most prevalent cause of placenta accreta. In an educational context, understanding the risk factors and causes of intrapartum complications like placenta accreta is essential for healthcare professionals involved in maternal care. By recognizing the impact of smoking on placental implantation, healthcare providers can counsel pregnant individuals on the importance of smoking cessation to reduce the risk of this serious obstetric complication.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a postpartum person after a hemorrhage. How does the nurse monitor for decreased perfusion?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of caring for a postpartum individual after a hemorrhage, monitoring for decreased perfusion is crucial to prevent complications. The correct answer is B) Measure blood loss. Monitoring blood loss is essential in assessing perfusion status as a significant hemorrhage can lead to hypovolemic shock, compromising tissue perfusion. By quantifying blood loss, the nurse can identify early signs of decreased perfusion and intervene promptly. Option A) Monitor lochia is not the most reliable indicator of perfusion status as it primarily reflects uterine bleeding and not overall blood loss. While changes in lochia can provide some information, it is not as direct or accurate as measuring blood loss. Option C) Check temperature is important for monitoring infection but is not a direct measure of perfusion status. While fever can indicate an inflammatory response due to decreased perfusion, it is a less specific indicator compared to measuring blood loss. Option D) Monitor 24-hour urine output is important for assessing renal function but may not provide immediate insight into perfusion status. While decreased urine output can be a sign of inadequate perfusion, it is a later indicator compared to direct measurement of blood loss. In an educational context, understanding the importance of monitoring for decreased perfusion postpartum after a hemorrhage is vital for nurses to provide safe and effective care. Emphasizing the significance of accurate and timely assessments, such as measuring blood loss, can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for postpartum individuals.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is providing care for a prenatal patient who is told she will require a cesarean delivery because of cephalopelvic disproportion. Which explanation of the condition will the nurse provide to the patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) The size and/or shape of either the fetal head or patient pelvis is an issue. In cases of cephalopelvic disproportion, the baby's head is too large or the mother's pelvis is too small or misshapen to allow for a vaginal delivery. This condition can lead to complications during labor, making a cesarean delivery the safest option for both mother and baby. Option A is incorrect because cephalopelvic disproportion is not a preexisting medical condition but rather a specific issue related to the baby's head and the mother's pelvis. Option C is incorrect as it describes placenta previa, a different condition where the placenta implants low in the uterus. Option D is incorrect as it refers to a previous uterine surgery, not the current situation of cephalopelvic disproportion. Understanding intrapartum-related complications like cephalopelvic disproportion is crucial for nurses caring for prenatal patients. By knowing the reasons behind the need for a cesarean delivery, nurses can provide accurate information and support to patients facing this situation. It also helps in ensuring the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby during childbirth.

Question 5 of 5

A patient is being prepared for an unplanned cesarean section. Which pre-procedure information is most important for the nurse to report before the administration of regional anesthesia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option C, which is reporting a laboratory value indicating a low platelet count before administering regional anesthesia for an unplanned cesarean section. Platelets are essential for clotting, and a low platelet count can increase the risk of bleeding complications, particularly with regional anesthesia, which can cause epidural hematomas or spinal hematomas. By reporting this information, the healthcare team can adjust the anesthesia plan to minimize the risk of bleeding complications for the patient. Option A (Hypovolemia corrected with IV fluid administration) is important but not as crucial as ensuring the patient's platelet count is adequate before administering regional anesthesia. Hypovolemia can be managed with IV fluids perioperatively. Option B (Inability of the patient to sit on the bedside and flex forward) may indicate potential anatomical issues but is not as critical as ensuring the safety of regional anesthesia by checking platelet counts. Option D (History of patient experiencing headaches after a spinal) is relevant but does not take precedence over ensuring the patient's platelet count is within a safe range to prevent bleeding complications during regional anesthesia. From an educational perspective, understanding the importance of assessing platelet counts before regional anesthesia is crucial in preventing serious complications like hemorrhage. Nurses must prioritize patient safety by recognizing the significance of specific pre-procedure information in different clinical scenarios to provide optimal care.

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