ATI RN
ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly used to prevent blood clots. One of the most severe adverse effects of warfarin is the risk of bleeding. This can occur in various parts of the body, such as the gastrointestinal tract, brain, or other organs. Bleeding complications can range from minor bruising to life-threatening hemorrhages, especially if warfarin levels are not properly monitored. Patients taking warfarin should be closely monitored for signs of bleeding, and their medication dosages should be adjusted as needed to maintain a balance between preventing clotting and avoiding excessive bleeding.
Question 2 of 5
A 22-year-old man has taken an overdose of sleeping pills after learning that he did not receive the job he has recently been interviewed for. He is found by his roommate conscious but not able to completely follow commands. The roommate calls the local poison control center. Instructions are given to self-administer syrup of ipecac while waiting for the rescue squad to respond. This agent has a mechanism of action that involves which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Syrup of ipecac induces vomiting in overdose. It stimulates the chemotactic trigger zone in the medulla-prompting emesis. Gag reflex stimulation is secondary. Suppressing pressures , gag reflex , or motor cortex (E) don't apply. Though less used now, ipecac's CNS action expels pills, aiding this acute scenario, distinct from mechanical or suppressive effects.
Question 3 of 5
A 33-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant with a porcine heart valve is at risk for thromboembolism. Which of the following is the best agent to use in this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pregnancy and a porcine valve increase thromboembolism risk. Heparin , an anticoagulant, is safe in pregnancy. Streptokinase , a thrombolytic, is risky. TED stockings prevent but don't treat systemic risk. Warfarin is teratogenic. Heparin's non-placental crossing ensures fetal safety while managing her condition.
Question 4 of 5
Which sign is common with hypocalcemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypocalcemia causes muscle spasms (tetany)-nerve hyperexcitability, per classic signs-unlike bruising (coagulation), hypertension (not direct), or wasting (chronic). Spasms dominate, per assessment.
Question 5 of 5
The following is suitable for treatment of acute dystonia as a result of metoclopramide treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metoclopramide, a D2 antagonist, causes acute dystonia (e.g., oculogyric crisis). Procyclidine, an anticholinergic, rapidly reverses this IV, relaxing muscles, a suitable treatment. Benzhexol (trihexyphenidyl) works orally but is slower. Levodopa and bromocriptine, dopamine agonists, treat Parkinson's, not dystonia from dopamine blockade. Risperidone worsens it. IV procyclidine's speed is critical in acute settings, restoring normal movement effectively.