ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is a condition where the coronary arteries become narrowed or blocked, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coronary artery disease (CAD). CAD is the condition where the coronary arteries become narrowed or blocked, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. The narrowing or blockage is typically caused by atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries. Atherosclerosis is a contributing factor to CAD, but CAD specifically refers to the reduced blood flow in the coronary arteries. Stroke (C) is a condition involving the brain's blood vessels, not the heart. Peripheral artery disease (D) involves narrowing of arteries outside the heart, typically in the legs. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is A as it directly relates to the narrowed or blocked coronary arteries causing reduced blood flow to the heart muscle.
Question 2 of 5
The client is given an alpha agonist. What might it be used for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: For hemostasis. Alpha agonists (such as epinephrine or norepinephrine) are used for hemostasis by causing vasoconstriction, which helps in stopping bleeding by constricting blood vessels. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: To dilate the arteries - Alpha agonists actually cause vasoconstriction, not dilation of arteries. C: To dilate the veins - Alpha agonists cause vasoconstriction, not dilation of veins. D: To decrease afterload - While alpha agonists can increase blood pressure by vasoconstriction, they are not typically used specifically to decrease afterload.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a decrease in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can result in dizziness, fainting, or even shock. Bradycardia (choice B) is a common side effect but usually not as critical as hypotension. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is a potential side effect of some beta blockers but is less common and typically not as urgent as hypotension. Tachycardia (choice D) is the opposite of what beta blockers typically cause, making it an unlikely side effect to monitor for in this case.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct lab value to monitor when administering heparin is aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time). This is because heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade, which is reflected in the aPTT value. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent clotting complications. PT/INR and platelet count are not specific to heparin monitoring, and hemoglobin does not directly reflect heparin's anticoagulant effects.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation on dabigatran (Pradaxa). What is the most important instruction to give to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Dabigatran is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. 2. Consistent dosing is crucial to maintain therapeutic levels. 3. Missing doses increases the risk of clot formation. 4. Taking it at the same time daily helps to ensure effectiveness. Summary: A: Taking with food is not essential for dabigatran. C: Alcohol does not directly interact with dabigatran. D: Monitoring for bleeding is important, but consistent dosing is the priority for efficacy.