What is a common cause of oligohydramnios during pregnancy?

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Question 1 of 9

What is a common cause of oligohydramnios during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Premature rupture of membranes. Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid which can be caused by the premature rupture of membranes, leading to the leakage of amniotic fluid. This condition can result in various complications such as fetal growth restriction and compression of the umbilical cord. Maternal hypertension (choice A) is not a direct cause of oligohydramnios. Multiple gestations (choice B) may lead to polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) rather than oligohydramnios. Fetal macrosomia (choice D) is associated with increased amniotic fluid levels rather than decreased levels seen in oligohydramnios.

Question 2 of 9

Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 causes one of the following

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klumpke's palsy. Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy, characterized by paralysis of the lower arm and hand muscles. This occurs due to damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus. Erb's palsy (choice A) involves C5 & C6 nerve roots, causing weakness in the shoulder and upper arm. Phrenic injury (choice C) affects the diaphragm, leading to breathing difficulties. Radial palsy (choice D) results from damage to the radial nerve, causing wrist drop and weakness in forearm muscles. Klumpke's palsy specifically matches the description of injury to nerve roots C8 & T1.

Question 3 of 9

The fetal head retracting against the perineum is a

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turtle sign. This occurs when the fetal head retracts against the perineum during delivery, resembling a turtle retracting into its shell. This indicates fetal shoulder dystocia, a serious complication. Gaskin sign (A) refers to the position of the mother during labor. Klumpke sign (C) is related to brachial plexus injuries during delivery. Chignon sign (D) is not a recognized term in obstetrics.

Question 4 of 9

Causes of puerperal pyrexia are entirely obstetrically related.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Puerperal pyrexia refers to fever occurring after childbirth. Step 2: Causes can be obstetric (infection) or non-obstetric (e.g., urinary tract infection). Step 3: Non-obstetric causes are also common postpartum. Step 4: Therefore, puerperal pyrexia is not entirely obstetrically related. Step 5: Hence, the correct answer is B (FALSE).

Question 5 of 9

How can Braxton Hicks contractions be differentiated from true labor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - All of the above. Braxton Hicks contractions can be differentiated from true labor by timing, intensity, and duration. Timing refers to the regularity of contractions, intensity relates to the strength of contractions, and duration indicates how long contractions last. By considering all three factors together, one can determine whether contractions are Braxton Hicks (practice contractions) or true labor contractions. Choices A, B, and C alone provide only partial information, which may lead to misinterpretation. Therefore, choosing all three factors collectively (D) is essential for accurate differentiation.

Question 6 of 9

Outline four (4) causes of obstructed labour:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Fetal macrosomia, malpresentation, and pelvic abnormalities are all known causes of obstructed labor. Fetal macrosomia refers to a large baby, which can lead to difficulty in passing through the birth canal. Malpresentation occurs when the baby is not positioned optimally for delivery, such as breech or transverse positions. Pelvic abnormalities, such as a contracted pelvis, can impede the baby's passage during labor. Therefore, selecting option D is appropriate as it encompasses all the major causes of obstructed labor. Choices A, B, and C are not individually comprehensive enough to cover all potential causes of obstructed labor.

Question 7 of 9

K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. The patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating suggest gastroparesis, a common complication post-ulcer surgery. 2. Given the history of complicated peptic ulcer disease and prior surgery, medication may be ineffective, necessitating potential reoperation. 3. The AGACNP advises that another surgery may be needed, indicating that medication alone may not suffice to address the issue. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point as the symptoms are likely indicative of a functional issue rather than a structural problem. B: While gastroparesis can occur post-ulcer surgery, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of gastroparesis rather than chronic gastroparesis as a known complication. D: The frequency of occurrence of symptoms after ulcer surgery is not relevant to the current management of the patient's symptoms.

Question 8 of 9

A student AGACNP just beginning his clinical rotation is observing his preceptor perform a physical survey on a patient who is brought in following a serious motor vehicle accident. The student observes that the physical examination includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of the pelvic landmarks. The student knows the patient is being assessed for

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peritoneal bleeding. In a patient with a serious motor vehicle accident, a physical examination that includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of pelvic landmarks is aimed at assessing for signs of internal bleeding, particularly peritoneal bleeding. Rectovaginal examination can detect blood in the rectouterine pouch, inspection of the urethral meatus can reveal blood at the urethral opening, and palpation of pelvic landmarks can identify tenderness or instability associated with internal bleeding. These findings would be indicative of potential peritoneal bleeding requiring urgent evaluation and management. Summary of other choices: B: Retroperitoneal bleeding - While physical examination findings may include signs such as flank ecchymosis or tenderness, the specific examinations mentioned are not typically performed to assess retroperitoneal bleeding. C: Paresthesia - Paresthesia refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness and

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to decision making for a cognitively impaired patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because living wills are typically not honored for terminally ill patients with impaired cognition. Firstly, living wills require the patient to be of sound mind to make decisions. Secondly, in the case of a cognitively impaired patient, their ability to express their wishes and understand the implications may be compromised. Therefore, healthcare providers may not be able to honor the living will accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because A) competency can be determined by healthcare professionals, B) impaired cognition can lead to incompetence, and D) informed consent requires the patient to understand the decision-making process.

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