What is a common cause of oligohydramnios during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Premature rupture of membranes. Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid which can be caused by the premature rupture of membranes, leading to the leakage of amniotic fluid. This condition can result in various complications such as fetal growth restriction and compression of the umbilical cord. Maternal hypertension (choice A) is not a direct cause of oligohydramnios. Multiple gestations (choice B) may lead to polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) rather than oligohydramnios. Fetal macrosomia (choice D) is associated with increased amniotic fluid levels rather than decreased levels seen in oligohydramnios.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: TB can be transmitted from an infected mother to her child during labor. Step 2: The TB bacteria can be present in the mother's respiratory secretions. Step 3: During labor, the baby can inhale these bacteria and contract TB. Step 4: Therefore, the statement that mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor is FALSE. Summary: Option B is correct because it accurately reflects the possibility of mother-to-child transmission of TB during labor. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the factual information. Options C and D are not applicable as they provide no information.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A needle biopsy is appropriate for definitive diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas, ruling out other liver lesions. It helps determine if they are benign or malignant. This will guide further management decisions. Summary: B: Annual ultrasound is unnecessary for benign hemangiomas. C: Surgery is not indicated for asymptomatic hepatic hemangiomas. D: Documenting the finding is important but not the appropriate next step in management.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low ACTH and low cortisol. In a patient with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor itself produces excess cortisol independently of ACTH regulation. Therefore, ACTH levels are low due to negative feedback from high cortisol levels. As a result, cortisol levels are high, while ACTH levels are low. Explanation for other choices: B: Low ACTH and high cortisol - This suggests primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease), not Cushing's syndrome. C: High ACTH and low cortisol - This suggests secondary adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing's syndrome. D: High ACTH and high cortisol - This is contradictory and not physiologically possible in the context of an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding occurring outside the placenta, such as from the cervix or vaginal walls, before the onset of labor. This is not associated with the placenta itself (intraplacental - choice A). Similarly, it does not occur during labor (intrapartum - choice B) or specifically before term (preterm - choice D). Extraplacental haemorrhage captures the essence of bleeding unrelated to the placenta during the antepartum period.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Breech presentation increases risks during childbirth. Prolonged labor is common due to the position of the baby. Umbilical cord prolapse occurs when the cord slips through the cervix before the baby, leading to oxygen deprivation. Shoulder dystocia happens when the baby's shoulders get stuck during delivery. Choice A is correct as it directly relates to complications of breech presentation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the complications associated with breech presentation. Cesarean delivery is often recommended for breech presentation to avoid complications. Uterine rupture is a rare but severe complication that is not directly caused by breech presentation. Preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and low birth weight are not commonly associated with breech presentation. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in the context of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, a partial response means converting an unresectable tumor to a resectable one. This is crucial as it allows for successful surgical removal of the tumor. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately define partial response in the context of cancer therapy. A, stating 50% of patients demonstrating remission, is not specific to the change in resectability. B, mentioning 50% survival at 5 years, is more related to overall survival rather than the response to treatment. C, stating a reduction in tumor mass by >50%, does not necessarily imply a change in resectability status. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate definition of partial response in the given scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tympany. Tenderness to percussion is analogous to tympany as both indicate the presence of gas-filled structures. When a patient experiences tenderness to percussion in the abdomen, it suggests that there is gas or air present in the abdomen, leading to a hollow, drum-like sound upon percussion, which is characteristic of tympany. Guarding (B) is the involuntary contraction of abdominal muscles to protect the underlying organs, not related to percussion. Rebound tenderness (C) is the pain experienced when pressure is released during palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) refers to pain originating from the skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion findings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep client well hydrated. Encouraging plenty of fluids helps prevent dehydration, maintain adequate urine output, and promote flushing of the urinary tract to prevent infections, all crucial for postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma. Proper hydration also supports overall health and aids in the healing process. B: Maintain proper fluid balance - While important, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated to support healing. C: Facilitate proper healing - Proper hydration does facilitate healing, but the primary aim is to keep the client well hydrated. D: Control growth of organisms - While hydration can help in preventing infections, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated.