What is a Bankart lesion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tear or avulsion of the anterior glenoid labrum. A Bankart lesion is a specific type of shoulder injury involving the anterior glenoid labrum. The labrum is a ring of fibrous tissue that surrounds the shoulder socket to provide stability. In a Bankart lesion, there is a tear or avulsion of this labrum, typically as a result of shoulder dislocation. This leads to instability of the shoulder joint. Choice B is incorrect because a compression fracture of the posterior humeral head does not involve the labrum and is not associated with Bankart lesions. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different shoulder injury known as a SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior) lesion. Choice D is incorrect as it describes compression of nerves and vessels, not a Bankart lesion involving the labrum.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer): The nurse recognizes that prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior because an individual's actions and choices greatly influence their health outcomes. By focusing on prevention, individuals can proactively engage in healthy behaviors to reduce their risk of developing diseases or health complications. This approach empowers individuals to take control of their health and well-being, promoting long-term health benefits and reducing the burden on healthcare systems. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect - Disease prevention involves more than just treating the external environment; it also includes individual behaviors and lifestyle choices. B: Incorrect - While some deaths may be unavoidable, prevention strategies can significantly reduce the incidence of many diseases and health conditions. D: Incorrect - Prevention is not solely reliant on treatment provided by primary health care practitioners; it involves a combination of individual behaviors, public health initiatives, and healthcare interventions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Buerger's disease. Contrast baths involve alternating hot and cold water immersion, which can worsen symptoms in Buerger's disease due to impaired blood flow and potential for exacerbating vasospasm. Rheumatoid arthritis (A), complex regional pain syndrome (B), and muscular strain (C) are not absolute contraindications for contrast baths as they can benefit from the modality when used appropriately.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertensive retinopathy. When examining a patient with red reflexes bilaterally, it indicates that light is reflecting off the retina, suggesting normal retinal function. Hypertensive retinopathy typically presents with signs such as flame-shaped hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and papilledema, which are not consistent with a normal red reflex. Retinoblastoma (A) would present as a white pupillary reflex, cataract (B) as opacity in the lens, and an artificial eye (C) would not have a red reflex at all. Therefore, by observing red reflexes bilaterally, you essentially exclude hypertensive retinopathy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, an enlarged bladder. Given the patient's age and presentation of a smooth lower abdominal mass with dullness to percussion above the symphysis pubis, it is likely due to an enlarged bladder. This is indicative of urinary retention, common in elderly individuals. Other choices are less likely: A sigmoid mass would present differently, a tumor in the abdominal wall would not cause dullness to percussion, and a hernia would typically be reducible and not cause dullness.