What intervention does the American College of Rheumatology recommend as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or something else?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exercise and weight loss. The American College of Rheumatology recommends this intervention as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis due to its proven benefits in reducing pain, improving joint function, and overall quality of life. Exercise helps strengthen muscles around the joints, improve flexibility, and reduce stiffness. Weight loss can also alleviate pressure on the joints, especially in weight-bearing joints. A: Diagnostic workup to rule out rheumatoid arthritis - This is not the first-line therapy but rather a step in the diagnostic process. B: NSAID use at the lowest effective dose - While NSAIDs may help with pain management, they are not recommended as the first-line therapy due to potential side effects. C: Acetaminophen use up to 4 grams/day - Acetaminophen can be used for pain relief, but it is not as effective as exercise and weight loss in managing osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis symptoms

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults due to its prevalence and ability to cause infections in the lungs. It accounts for a significant portion of pneumonia cases worldwide. Staphylococcus aureus (A) is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumoniae (C) typically causes atypical pneumonia, which tends to be milder and more common in younger individuals. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is more commonly seen in individuals with underlying health conditions or compromised immune systems, rather than in healthy adults with community-acquired pneumonia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Funnel chest (pectus excavatum). Pectus excavatum is characterized by a depressed or sunken appearance of the sternum, which matches the description provided in the case. In this condition, the chest wall is abnormally shaped inward. This can be a congenital condition or develop during growth spurts in adolescence. The lack of symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion is consistent with pectus excavatum, as these symptoms are not typically associated with this condition. The other choices (A: Barrel chest, C: Pigeon chest, D: Thoracic kyphoscoliosis) do not match the specific findings described in the case and are not associated with the characteristic sternal depression seen in pectus excavatum.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The purpose of the expanded assessment when using the LAPSS is to determine whether there are other possible causes of the patient's signs and symptoms. This is because LAPSS primarily focuses on identifying stroke symptoms, so the expanded assessment helps rule out other potential conditions. Option A is incorrect because LAPSS does not primarily assess circulation. Option B is incorrect because LAPSS is not specifically designed to determine compartment syndrome. Option D is incomplete and does not provide any information to support it as the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is not effective during an acute asthma attack. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist used for maintenance therapy, not for acute attacks. It does not provide immediate relief. Choices B and C are incorrect because salmeterol's onset of action is not immediate, and it may take days to weeks to achieve full effect. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used in children under 12 years old.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Papilledema. Diabetic retinopathy is a microvascular complication of diabetes that primarily affects the retina's blood vessels. Papilledema, which is optic disc swelling due to increased intracranial pressure, is not a typical finding in diabetic retinopathy. Dot and blot hemorrhages, microaneurysms, and cotton wool spots are commonly seen in diabetic retinopathy due to retinal vessel damage and ischemia. Papilledema is more associated with conditions like intracranial hypertension or optic neuritis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because atypical, community-acquired pneumonia often presents with subtle symptoms like a low-grade fever and malaise. Clear lung fields on auscultation are typical as atypical pneumonia affects the interstitium rather than the alveoli. Choice B is incorrect as crackles throughout the lung fields are indicative of typical pneumonia affecting the alveoli. Choice C is incorrect because a sore throat is not a typical symptom of atypical pneumonia, and diminished breath sounds are not typically associated with atypical pneumonia. Choice D is incorrect because a temperature of 102°F and dyspnea are more indicative of a more severe pneumonia, and diminished lung sounds are not typically associated with atypical pneumonia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% (Betanate). When managing an acute flare of atopic dermatitis unresponsive to emollient therapy, topical corticosteroids like betamethasone are often the first-line treatment due to their anti-inflammatory properties. Betamethasone is a potent corticosteroid that can help reduce inflammation, itching, and redness associated with atopic dermatitis. Oral corticosteroids (Choice A) are generally reserved for severe cases due to potential systemic side effects. Desonide (Choice C) is a milder topical corticosteroid suitable for maintenance therapy but may not be potent enough for acute flares. Pimecrolimus (Choice D) is a calcineurin inhibitor used for moderate to severe atopic dermatitis and is generally not the first choice for initial treatment of acute flares.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sebaceous cyst. A sebaceous cyst typically presents as a lump underneath the skin that can be squeezed to release a cheesy substance, consistent with Jacob's description. The formation of a prominent dimple when gently pinched is characteristic of a cyst, indicating it is filled with fluid or semi-solid material. Sebaceous cysts are usually benign and can grow slowly over time. Incorrect choices: A: An enlarged lymph node - Unlikely as lymph nodes are typically not associated with cheesy discharge or the formation of a dimple when pinched. C: An actinic keratosis - Unlikely as actinic keratosis is a precancerous skin condition caused by sun exposure, not presenting with cheesy discharge or a dimple. D: A malignant lesion - Unlikely as malignant lesions usually do not produce cheesy discharge and are more aggressive in growth compared to a sebaceous cyst.