ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
What instruction should the nurse give to then patient taking propan0lol (Inderal) for hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not stop medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping propranolol can lead to rebound hypertension and potentially life-threatening complications. The nurse should emphasize the importance of gradual tapering under medical supervision to avoid adverse effects. A: Having potassium levels checked is not directly related to propranolol use for hypertension management. C: Changes in appetite are not specific to propranolol use and may not be a significant concern compared to abrupt cessation of the medication. D: Resuming usual daily activities is important but not as crucial as the correct instruction to avoid abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.
Question 2 of 9
When the patient’s signature is witnessed by the nurse on the surgical consent, which of the following does the nurse’s signature indicate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse's signature indicates that they verified the patient's signature on the consent form. This step ensures that the patient has signed the document willingly. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse doesn't obtain informed consent, that's the responsibility of the physician. Choice B is incorrect because nurses do not provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse witnessing the signature doesn't imply they answered all surgical procedure questions.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is aware that in communicating with an elderly client, the nurse will
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals may have age-related hearing loss, making it difficult for them to hear higher frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice can help ensure that the client can hear and understand the nurse clearly. A: Leaning and shouting at the ear of the client may come across as aggressive and disrespectful. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking is not necessary and may be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be too difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.
Question 4 of 9
Patients are at risk for overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) following splenectomy. Which of the ff. symptoms alerts the nurse to this possibility?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever. Following splenectomy, patients are at risk for OPSI due to impaired immune response. Fever is a key symptom of infection and should alert the nurse to this possibility. Bruising around the operative site (A) is expected post-surgery. Pain (B) is common after surgery and may not specifically indicate OPSI. Irritability (C) is a vague symptom and not specific to OPSI. In summary, fever is the most concerning symptom as it can indicate an underlying infection in a postsplenectomy patient.
Question 5 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is the surgical removal of the pituitary gland's adenohypophysis. 2. The procedure is used to treat pituitary tumors, which can be benign or malignant, but commonly referred to as pituitary adenomas. 3. Pituitary adenomas may secrete hormones excessively, leading to various endocrine disorders. 4. Hormone replacement therapy is required post-surgery to manage hormonal deficiencies. 5. Therefore, the correct answer is C (Pituitary carcinoma). Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the pituitary gland, which is the primary target of a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy.
Question 6 of 9
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action is to choose C: Ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement. This is important as the patient's non-verbal cues (facial grimacing) contradict their verbal pain report. By directly addressing the discrepancy, the nurse can gather more accurate information about the patient's pain experience and potentially identify any underlying issues causing the discrepancy. Proceeding to the next patient's room (A) without addressing the discrepancy would neglect the patient's needs. Assuming the patient does not want pain medicine (B) based solely on the verbal report without further assessment is premature. Administering pain medication (D) without clarifying the situation may lead to inappropriate or ineffective treatment. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate initial action to ensure comprehensive and individualized patient care.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is reviewing information about a client and notes the following documentation: 'Client is confused.' The nurse recognizes this information is an example of what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inference. When the nurse documents that the client is confused, it is an interpretation or conclusion drawn from the observed behavior or symptoms. Inferences are based on subjective and objective data. Subjective data (choice A) is based on what the client states, while a data cue (choice B) is a piece of information that may lead to an inference but is not the actual interpretation. Primary data (choice D) refers to firsthand information obtained directly from the client, which is not the case here. In this scenario, the nurse is making an inference based on the observed confusion, making choice C the correct answer.
Question 8 of 9
Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have a mammogram annually. Mammograms are recommended by the American Cancer Society for breast cancer screening in women as they are effective in detecting early signs of breast cancer. Mammograms have been shown to reduce mortality rates from breast cancer. Annual mammograms are crucial for early detection and treatment. A: Performing breast self-examination annually is not recommended as a standalone screening method as it has not been shown to significantly reduce mortality rates. C: Having a normal receptor assay annually is not a standard screening test for breast cancer recommended by the American Cancer Society. D: Having a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years is not as effective as annual mammograms for detecting early signs of breast cancer.
Question 9 of 9
Deaths have occurred when potassium chloride has been used incorrectly to flush a lock or central venous catheter. Which of the ff precautions should a nurse take to minimize this risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Reading labels carefully on vials containing flush solutions for locks is crucial to ensure the correct solution is being used. Step 2: Potassium chloride should not be used to flush locks as it can be fatal if administered incorrectly. Step 3: By carefully reading labels, the nurse can verify that the correct solution is being used, thus minimizing the risk of using potassium chloride. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as using a dilute form of potassium chloride does not address the issue of incorrect administration. - Choice B is incorrect as warming the solution does not prevent the risk associated with using potassium chloride. - Choice D is incorrect as replacing locks does not address the root cause of the issue, which is improper administration.