What information should a working mother who wants to continue breastfeeding her infant by occasionally pumping milk ahead of time be given to help her successfully maintain breastfeeding?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. This information is crucial as it informs the mother of her options for expressing milk, which is the first step in being able to store and later feed it to her child while she's away at work. Choice A has been corrected to state that breast milk can be refrigerated for up to 4 days, providing a more accurate storage timeframe. Choice B has been revised to indicate that breast milk stored in a deep freezer can be kept for up to 12 months, aligning with the recommended storage duration. Choice C now highlights that heating breast milk in the microwave can degrade its nutritional quality, emphasizing the importance of using proper methods for warming breast milk and avoiding potential harm to the baby's health and well-being.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pepsin is the enzyme that initiates protein digestion in the stomach. It breaks down proteins into smaller peptides, aiding in their further digestion and absorption in the intestines. Salivary Amylase (Choice B) functions in breaking down dietary carbohydrates in the mouth, not proteins. CCK (Choice C) and Secretin (Choice D) are hormones involved in the digestion of fats and carbohydrates, not proteins. Therefore, Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of protein digestion in the stomach.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cariostatic foods are those that contribute to the prevention of tooth decay. Eggs, cheese, and seafood are all cariostatic foods, as they can aid in protecting against tooth decay. On the contrary, instant oatmeal does not possess these cariostatic properties. Due to its processed nature, it is more fermentable and cariogenic, which means it can encourage cavity formation. Although it is not directly harmful to the teeth, it does not provide the same defensive benefits against tooth decay as the other choices do. Therefore, 'Instant oatmeal' is the exception among these foods and is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cariogenic foods and beverages lower the pH level in the mouth to below 5.5. This is a critical threshold, as it is the point at which enamel begins to demineralize, increasing the risk of dental caries. Therefore, options 'A', 'C', and 'D' are incorrect. Although a pH level of 5, as suggested by option 'A', would indeed lead to demineralization, it's not the threshold value. The pH levels suggested by options 'C' and 'D' (6 and 6.5, respectively) are higher than the critical value of 5.5, which means they would not initiate enamel demineralization and the subsequent risk of dental caries.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best way to ensure adequate nutrition for a stroke patient who frequently chokes and coughs when eating and has difficulty feeding herself is to provide tube feedings. Tube feedings are a safe and effective method to deliver nutrition directly to the stomach or intestines, bypassing the swallowing mechanism, reducing the risk of aspiration. Having an aide feed her each meal (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of swallowing difficulty and aspiration risk. Asking a family member to be present at each meal (choice B) does not provide a definitive solution to the patient's nutritional needs. Placing the patient on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) (choice D) is a more invasive and typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate enteral feedings or have non-functional gastrointestinal tracts.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marasmus. Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition and is not a direct manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Choices A, B, and D are all characteristic manifestations of NUG. Gingival erythema, necrosis of interdental papilla, and metallic taste with foul odor are commonly associated with NUG due to the inflammatory and necrotic nature of the condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m², as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m² indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m² signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m², which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In both gestational diabetes and Type II diabetes, the body's cells become resistant to insulin, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. Insulin resistance in these types of diabetes prevents glucose from entering the cells, causing it to accumulate in the bloodstream. On the other hand, Type I diabetes is characterized by the body's inability to produce insulin because the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and B. Choice C, Type I diabetes, is not characterized by insulin resistance but rather by the body's inability to produce insulin. Therefore, it is incorrect. Choice D, Both A and B, includes the correct options of gestational diabetes and Type II diabetes, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.