Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

What IMMEDIATE danger should the nurse anticipate post Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Post Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP), the immediate danger that the nurse should anticipate is bleeding. TURP is a surgical procedure that involves removing portions of the prostate gland through the urethra. Due to the nature of the surgery and the rich blood supply to the prostate, bleeding is a common complication post-TURP. Excessive bleeding can lead to hypovolemic shock, which is a life-threatening condition. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as blood in the urine, drop in hematocrit levels, hypotension, tachycardia, and signs of hypovolemic shock, is crucial to prevent any serious complications. Proper assessment, monitoring, and timely intervention are essential in managing post-TURP bleeding and preventing adverse outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

What should be the INITIAL S'TEP in the process of change for the senior nurse

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The initial step in the process of change for the senior nurse should be to identify the inefficiency that needs improvement or correction. Before setting goals, planning strategies, or identifying solutions, it is essential to first pinpoint the specific area or aspect that requires change. By identifying the inefficiency, the senior nurse can gain a clear understanding of the root cause of the issue and focus efforts on addressing it effectively. This step lays the foundation for the rest of the change process by providing a specific target for improvement.

Question 3 of 5

A woman in active labor demonstrates persistent fetal malpresentation, with the fetus in a transverse lie position. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address this abnormal labor presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In cases of persistent fetal malpresentation, such as a transverse lie position, a cesarean section is often the safest and most effective intervention to address the abnormal labor presentation. Delivering a baby in a transverse lie position vaginally is associated with high risks, including fetal complications such as umbilical cord prolapse and head entrapment. Therefore, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby, a cesarean section is usually the most appropriate and timely intervention to address this situation. It is crucial to prioritize the immediate preparation and facilitation of a cesarean section in cases of persistent fetal malpresentation to prevent potential complications and ensure the best outcome for the mother and the baby.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Symptoms began approximately 1 hour ago and have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech that partially resolved within one hour, is consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). TIAs are caused by temporary disruption of blood flow to a part of the brain, leading to transient neurological symptoms. Unlike an ischemic stroke, which results in permanent damage to brain tissue due to prolonged interruption of blood flow, TIAs are transient and resolve within 24 hours. Hemorrhagic strokes and subarachnoid hemorrhages typically present with sudden, severe headaches, and may not improve or resolve quickly as seen in this case.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible. Ultrasound imaging demonstrates a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible, along with ultrasound imaging findings of a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components, is classic for a branchial cleft cyst. Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that arise from remnants of the branchial clefts or pouches during embryonic development. They are typically located along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, just below the mandible. Ultrasound imaging often shows a cystic lesion with well-defined borders and hypoechoic content, which is consistent with the described findings. Thyroglossal duct cysts usually present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing or tongue protrusion, not in the location described in the scenario. Lymphadenopathy would present as enlarged lymph nodes that may be tender and associated with systemic symptoms.

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