What health teaching would not help an older adult avoid a musculoskeletal injury?

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Multi Dimensional Care | Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

What health teaching would not help an older adult avoid a musculoskeletal injury?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: **Rationale:** **Correct Answer (A: Avoid home modification)** Avoiding home modifications is counterproductive to preventing musculoskeletal injuries in older adults. Home modifications—such as installing grab bars in bathrooms, improving lighting, removing tripping hazards, and adding stair railings—are proven strategies to reduce fall risks and subsequent fractures or sprains. Falls are a leading cause of musculoskeletal injuries in older adults, and modifications create a safer living environment. Ignoring these adaptations increases the likelihood of accidents, making this choice the least helpful advice. **Incorrect Answers:** **B: Wear a helmet when riding a bicycle** This is a valid preventive measure. While cycling, older adults are at risk of falls or collisions that could lead to fractures or traumatic injuries. A helmet protects against head injuries, which can indirectly prevent musculoskeletal harm by reducing the impact force transmitted to the neck, spine, and limbs. Though cycling may be less common in older adults, safety gear is still crucial for those who engage in such activities. **C: Osteoporosis screening** Osteoporosis screening is critical for older adults because it identifies bone density loss, a major risk factor for fractures. Early detection allows for interventions (e.g., calcium supplementation, weight-bearing exercises, or medications) that strengthen bones and reduce fracture risks. Since weakened bones exacerbate injury severity, screening directly contributes to musculoskeletal injury prevention. **D: Fall prevention** Fall prevention strategies (e.g., balance exercises, proper footwear, and medication reviews) are essential for older adults. Falls often result in fractures, dislocations, or soft tissue injuries, particularly in those with osteoporosis or muscle weakness. Proactive measures significantly lower injury risks, making this a highly effective teaching point. In summary, while options B, C, and D actively promote musculoskeletal safety, option A undermines injury prevention by discouraging necessary environmental adaptations.

Question 2 of 5

What is a negative effect of immobility on the cardiovascular system?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Immobility negatively impacts the cardiovascular system by disrupting normal hemodynamics, and the most significant consequence is **venous stasis (D)**. When a person is immobile for prolonged periods, skeletal muscle contractions—which normally assist venous return by compressing veins and propelling blood toward the heart—are minimized. This leads to blood pooling in the lower extremities, increasing venous pressure and causing stasis. Stasis raises the risk of **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** due to sluggish blood flow, endothelial damage, and hypercoagulability. Additionally, immobility reduces the effectiveness of the venous valve system, further impairing circulation and exacerbating fluid accumulation in dependent tissues. **A ("Increased high-density lipoprotein")** is incorrect because immobility typically correlates with **reduced** HDL levels, not an increase. Physical inactivity is associated with unfavorable lipid profiles, including lower HDL (the "good" cholesterol) and higher LDL and triglycerides. HDL helps remove excess cholesterol, and its reduction worsens cardiovascular health. Immobility promotes metabolic dysregulation, contributing to atherosclerosis, contrary to the premise of this option. **B ("Increased circulation")** is incorrect because immobility **decreases** circulation. Normal circulation relies on movement—both physical activity and positional changes—to promote venous return via the muscle pump mechanism. Immobility stagnates blood flow, reducing cardiac output over time and impairing tissue perfusion. This can lead to complications like orthostatic hypotension (due to reduced vascular tone) and dependent edema, directly opposing the claim of improved circulation. **C ("Increased pumping action of the heart")** is incorrect because immobility **weakens** cardiac function. Prolonged inactivity reduces cardiac workload, leading to **cardiovascular deconditioning**. The heart’s pumping efficiency declines as stroke volume and cardiac output decrease due to reduced demand. Over time, this can cause myocardial atrophy (shrinking of heart muscle) and decreased aerobic capacity, the opposite of enhanced pumping action. The heart adapts to lower activity levels by becoming less efficient, not more. In summary, venous stasis (D) is the only plausible consequence of immobility, while the other choices describe outcomes that are either physiologically implausible (B, C) or opposite to the expected metabolic effects (A). The cardiovascular system relies on movement to maintain homeostasis, and immobilization disrupts this balance, posing significant risks like DVT, deconditioning, and impaired circulation.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse educates a client about how to reduce their risk for osteoporosis. Which of these statements by the nurse is correct? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: **Rationale:** **Correct Answer (B): Reducing caffeine intake can decrease the risk of osteoporosis.** Caffeine has a mild diuretic effect, increasing calcium excretion through urine. Over time, excessive caffeine consumption (typically >3–4 cups of coffee per day) may contribute to decreased bone mineral density, particularly if calcium intake is insufficient. While caffeine alone is not a primary cause of osteoporosis, moderation helps preserve calcium balance, supporting bone health. **Incorrect Answer (A): Avoiding vitamin D would increase, not decrease, osteoporosis risk.** Vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Without sufficient vitamin D, the body cannot effectively utilize dietary calcium, leading to weakened bones. Avoiding vitamin D would exacerbate bone loss, directly contradicting osteoporosis prevention strategies. **Incorrect Answer (C): Decreasing alcohol intake is correct, but the question asks for the nurse’s incorrect statement.** Excessive alcohol impairs osteoblast function (bone-forming cells) and interferes with calcium and vitamin D metabolism, increasing osteoporosis risk. However, this option is factually accurate, so its inclusion here suggests a misinterpretation of the question. If the question intended to identify only incorrect statements, this would not fit. **Incorrect Answer (D): Reducing protein intake would harm bone health.** Adequate protein is crucial for maintaining bone matrix integrity. Low protein intake is associated with reduced bone density and slower healing of fractures. While excessive protein without sufficient calcium may pose risks, protein restriction is not a recommended osteoporosis prevention strategy. **Key Takeaways:** - **Bone health requires balance:** Calcium, vitamin D, and protein are critical; caffeine and alcohol should be moderated. - **Misleading choices:** Avoiding vitamin D or protein directly undermines bone strength, while alcohol reduction (though correct) does not align with the question’s framing if seeking incorrect statements. - **Context matters:** The question likely tests recognition of harmful advice (A and D) versus beneficial actions (B and C), but assuming it requests incorrect statements, B stands alone as the accurate selection. **Clarifying Nuances:** - Caffeine’s effect is dose-dependent; moderate intake with adequate calcium may not pose significant risk. - Alcohol’s harm is dose-dependent, but abstinence is not required—moderation is key. - Vitamin D and protein are non-negotiable for bone health; their restriction is never advised. This rationale ensures students understand not just the correct answer but the physiological principles underlying each option, empowering them to apply this knowledge in clinical judgment.

Question 4 of 5

While completing a health history the client reports experiencing blurring of vision in both eyes without associated pain. What condition does the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The client's report of bilateral, painless blurred vision strongly suggests cataracts as the most likely condition. Cataracts develop when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, leading to progressive, painless vision impairment that typically affects both eyes (though often asymmetrically). This clouding scatters light entering the eye, causing blurred vision that may be described as looking through a foggy window. Cataracts are particularly associated with aging (age-related cataracts), but can also result from trauma, medications like steroids, or systemic conditions like diabetes. The bilateral presentation without pain aligns perfectly with cataract symptoms, as they rarely cause discomfort unless they reach an advanced stage. Macular degeneration (A) primarily affects central vision rather than causing generalized blurring, and typically presents with specific distortions like straight lines appearing wavy (metamorphopsia) or central scotomas (blind spots). While it can be bilateral, macular degeneration wouldn't typically cause symmetrical blurring without these distinctive features. Retinal detachment (C) usually presents with unilateral symptoms like sudden flashes of light (photopsia), floaters, or a "curtain" over the visual field rather than gradual bilateral blurring. While painless, retinal detachment is typically an acute event with distinct symptoms that differ from the described presentation. Glaucoma (D) in its most common form (open-angle) is indeed painless, but visual changes typically begin with peripheral vision loss, not generalized blurring. Angle-closure glaucoma can cause sudden blurring but is accompanied by severe pain, nausea, and halos around lights, making it inconsistent with this presentation. The key distinguishing factors here are the bilateral nature of symptoms, absence of pain, and the characteristic blurred (rather than lost) vision. Cataracts progress slowly, explaining why the blurring develops gradually without other symptoms. The lens opacity in cataracts affects all light entering the eye uniformly, unlike macular degeneration which targets central vision or glaucoma that attacks peripheral vision first. None of the other options present with this exact combination of features, making cataract the only plausible explanation among the choices given. Additional supporting evidence would include age (most common in those over 60), possible complaints of glare sensitivity, or difficulty with night vision—all hallmark symptoms of cataracts that further confirm this as the correct answer.

Question 5 of 5

What is the most common method of reducing and immobilizing a fracture?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF) is the most common method for reducing and immobilizing fractures because it provides direct visualization and alignment of bone fragments while offering stable fixation through implants like plates, screws, or rods. This approach ensures anatomical reduction, which is critical for proper healing, especially in displaced or complex fractures. The internal fixation hardware maintains alignment during the healing process, allowing for early mobilization and rehabilitation, reducing complications like malunion or nonunion. ORIF is preferred for intra-articular fractures (where joint surfaces are involved) and comminuted fractures (multiple bone fragments) because it restores function and stability more effectively than external methods. Choice A (Open reduction with external fixation) is incorrect because external fixation is typically reserved for severe open fractures, cases with significant soft tissue damage, or temporary stabilization. While open reduction allows direct visualization, external fixators are bulkier, limit mobility, and carry a higher risk of pin-site infections. They are not as stable as internal fixation for long-term fracture healing and are usually a bridge to definitive treatment rather than the primary method. Choice B (External reduction and internal fixation) is incorrect because "external reduction" is not a standard medical term. Reduction refers to realigning bone fragments, which can only be done through closed (non-surgical) or open (surgical) methods. Pairing "external reduction" with internal fixation is a contradiction—internal fixation requires surgical access, making the phrase nonsensical in clinical practice. Choice C (External fixation with closed reduction) is incorrect because while closed reduction (manipulation without surgery) is less invasive, it is often insufficient for unstable or complex fractures. External fixation alone lacks the precision of internal fixation and may not maintain adequate alignment, leading to poor healing outcomes. This method is more commonly used in emergency settings or for temporary stabilization before ORIF, not as the definitive treatment for most fractures. The superiority of ORIF lies in its ability to combine precise anatomical alignment with robust mechanical stability, facilitating optimal bone healing and functional recovery. Other methods either lack the necessary stability (external fixation) or are misrepresented concepts (external reduction), making them unsuitable as the most common or effective approach.

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