What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

Question 2 of 5

What is the initial nursing action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority initial action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (choice B) and cardiac enzymes (choice C) are important assessments but are not the first priority when managing acute chest pain. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is essential for administering medications and fluids, but administering sublingual nitroglycerin takes precedence in the initial management of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.

Question 3 of 5

What should be done if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the appropriate action is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment helps alleviate the cramping by reducing the pressure of the solution entering the colon. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) is not necessary unless there are other complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may not address the immediate discomfort caused by cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.

Question 4 of 5

What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

Question 5 of 5

What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the correct intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This can help resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the entire chest tube system are not appropriate interventions in this scenario. Clamping the tube can lead to a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the chest tube system may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by simply tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications associated with the air leak.

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