ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.
Question 2 of 5
What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak in the system. This occurs when air is entering the system through a leak, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B, a blocked chest tube, is incorrect as a blocked tube would result in a lack of drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect as continuous bubbling signifies an issue. Choice D, continuous drainage from the chest tube, is incorrect as bubbling in the water seal chamber specifically indicates an air leak, not just the presence of drainage.
Question 3 of 5
What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.
Question 4 of 5
What teaching should be provided to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding at the surgical site, so it is important to steer clear of them. Choice B, wearing dark glasses while outdoors, may be recommended post-surgery to protect the eyes from bright light, but it is not the priority teaching in this case. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is not accurate as drainage from the eye should be monitored and reported. Choice D, reducing phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day, is unrelated to post-cataract surgery care and is not a necessary teaching point.
Question 5 of 5
What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.
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