ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 4
What drug should be administered for individual prevention of malaria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (B), Ampicillin (C), and Gentamicin (D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria. Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.
Question 2 of 4
A sample of a finished dosage form was found to be contaminated with some microorganisms exhibiting the following properties: greenish fluorescent colonies of gram-negative nonsporeforming bacilli that grew on the medium for the detection of pyocyanin. The bacilli release the bluegreen pigment into the medium. What microorganisms contaminated the finished dosage form?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacilli that produce pyocyanin, a blue-green pigment. The presence of greenish fluorescent colonies of gram-negative nonsporeforming bacilli that release blue-green pigment matches the characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Now, let's analyze the other choices: B: Enterobacteriaceae - While some Enterobacteriaceae can be gram-negative bacilli, they do not typically produce pyocyanin or exhibit the specific characteristics described in the question. C: Staphylococcus aureus - Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci, not a gram-negative bacilli. It does not match the given description. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis - Staphylococcus epidermidis is also a gram-positive cocci, not a gram-negative bacilli. It does
Question 3 of 4
A 32-year-old patient who lives in the countryside consulted a doctor about a painful swelling and a fistula in the submandibular region. Examination revealed an infiltration with a fistula discharging thick pus and containing white granules. On dissection the infiltration tissues turned out to be dense, yellow-green and had honeycomb structure because of multiple abscesses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Actinomycosis. This is because the patient's presentation of a painful swelling with a fistula containing white granules and yellow-green honeycomb-like tissue is classic for Actinomycosis. Actinomyces is a gram-positive anaerobic bacterium that forms sulfur granules in tissues. Tuberculosis (B) typically presents with caseating granulomas, not sulfur granules. Leprosy (C) presents with skin lesions and nerve damage, not characteristic of this case. Syphilis (D) usually presents with painless ulcers and rash, not the painful swelling and fistula seen in this patient.
Question 4 of 4
In order to establish the possible contamination of a medication with fungi, a nutrient medium was inoculated, which resulted in growth of large cream-like colonies. What nutrient medium was used in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud. Sabouraud agar is specifically designed to promote the growth of fungi due to its low pH and high glucose content. The cream-like colonies indicate fungal growth, as fungi often appear as fluffy or powdery colonies on Sabouraud agar. Lowenstein-Jensen is used for mycobacteria, Roux for diphtheria, and Loeffler for Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Therefore, Sabouraud is the most suitable medium for detecting fungal contamination based on the characteristics of the colonies formed.