What drug should be administered for individual prevention of malaria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (B), Ampicillin (C), and Gentamicin (D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria. Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is as follows: 1. Adsorption: Virus attaches to host cell. 2. Penetration: Virus enters host cell. 3. Uncoating: Viral genetic material is released. 4. Replication: Viral genetic material replicates. 5. Assembly: New viral particles are assembled. 6. Release: New viral particles are released from the host cell. Choice A is correct as it follows the correct chronological order of virus multiplication stages. Choice B is incorrect as it has the wrong order of penetration and adsorption. Choice C is incorrect as it has the wrong order of adsorption, uncoating, and penetration. Choice D is incorrect as it has the wrong order of penetration and uncoating.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. It is the drug of choice for treating systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Metronidazole is well-absorbed, reaches therapeutic levels in the intestines, liver, and lungs, making it effective in treating the multi-organ involvement in this case. Choice B: Quiniofone is not a recommended treatment for amebiasis. Choice C: Tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for systemic amebiasis. Choice D: Quingamine is not a recognized drug for treating amebiasis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the main factor in the pathogenicity of diphtheria is the exotoxin produced by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis in host cells, leading to tissue damage and the characteristic symptoms of diphtheria. A: The metachromatic bodies of Ernst-Babes are not the main factor in diphtheria pathogenicity. B: While endotoxins can contribute to the pathogenicity of some bacteria, in diphtheria, the main factor is the exotoxin. D: This is incorrect as the main factor in diphtheria pathogenicity is the exotoxin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that typically has a greenish hue on MacConkey agar due to its ability to ferment lactose, producing acid that changes the pH indicator to green. E. coli is a common cause of diarrhea, particularly in cases of traveler's diarrhea. Salmonella (B), Shigella (C), and Klebsiella (D) are also Gram-negative rods but do not typically show a greenish hue on MacConkey agar and are less commonly associated with causing diarrhea compared to E. coli.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, chromoblastomycosis. This is a chronic localized subcutaneous infection caused by certain fungi, resulting in verrucoid lesions on the skin. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Candidiasis is a superficial fungal infection, not characterized by verrucoid lesions. B: Leprosy is a systemic bacterial infection, not localized to the skin with verrucoid lesions. C: Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, presenting as a painful rash with blisters, not verrucoid lesions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium appears as purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends on Gram staining. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. It is encapsulated and has a lancet-shaped appearance, which is characteristic of the pointed ends seen in the staining. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears as clusters of gram-positive cocci, not diplococci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a gram-negative rod, not a diplococci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a gram-negative diplococci but typically lacks the pointed ends seen in the staining of S. pneumoniae.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest staphylococci. Step 2: Catalase-positive and coagulase-negative narrows it down to Staphylococcus epidermidis, as it is catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a straight or slightly curved rod with occasional polymorphism. This bacterium does not conform to the characteristics of gram-negative coccus (A), gram-positive coccus (B), or gram-negative rod (C). Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by its unique cell wall composition, which includes high lipid content and mycolic acids, contributing to its acid-fast staining property. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the morphology of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.