ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What drug should be administered for individual prevention of malaria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (B), Ampicillin (C), and Gentamicin (D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria. Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.
Question 2 of 9
The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Extracellular. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the blood outside of cells, preventing the formation of blood clots. It does not directly affect cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular processes. By targeting extracellular factors, heparin effectively reduces the ability of blood to clot, making it an effective anticoagulant. The other choices are incorrect because heparin does not act on cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular sites in the body to decrease blood clotting.
Question 3 of 9
Infections that may result from the use of catheters are classified as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: iatrogenic infections. Iatrogenic infections are those caused by medical interventions like catheter use. Catheters can introduce pathogens into the body, leading to infections. Local infections (B) refer to infections confined to a specific area, not necessarily caused by catheters. Exogenous infections (C) come from an external source, not specifically related to medical interventions. Endogenous infections (D) arise from the body's own flora and are not directly related to catheter use.
Question 4 of 9
A businessman came to India from South America. On examination the physician found that the patient was suffering from sleeping-sickness. What was the way of invasion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: As a result of mosquito's bites. Sleeping sickness, also known as African trypanosomiasis, is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma transmitted by tsetse flies, not mosquitoes. Tsetse flies are primarily found in Africa, not South America. Choice A is incorrect as bug bites do not transmit sleeping sickness. Choice C is incorrect as contaminated fruits and vegetables do not transmit the disease. Choice D is incorrect as dirty hands do not play a role in the transmission of sleeping sickness.
Question 5 of 9
A chronic localized subcutaneous infection characterized by verrucoid lesions on the skin is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, chromoblastomycosis. This is a chronic localized subcutaneous infection caused by certain fungi, resulting in verrucoid lesions on the skin. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Candidiasis is a superficial fungal infection, not characterized by verrucoid lesions. B: Leprosy is a systemic bacterial infection, not localized to the skin with verrucoid lesions. C: Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, presenting as a painful rash with blisters, not verrucoid lesions.
Question 6 of 9
What is virus Fixe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A vaccine strain. Virus Fixe is a specific strain of rabies virus used in the production of rabies vaccines. This strain has been attenuated to be safe for use in vaccines. Choice B, a cell culture, is incorrect as it does not specifically refer to Virus Fixe. Choice C, a wild type of rabies virus, is incorrect as Virus Fixe is not a wild type but a modified strain. Choice D, an infectious disease, is incorrect as Virus Fixe is not a disease but a strain of virus used in vaccines.
Question 7 of 9
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest staphylococci. Step 2: Catalase-positive and coagulase-negative narrows it down to Staphylococcus epidermidis, as it is catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.
Question 8 of 9
Which group of drugs can be used to treat influenza?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neuraminidase inhibitors. Neuraminidase is an enzyme crucial for the release of new viral particles from infected cells during influenza infection. By inhibiting neuraminidase, the spread of the virus is limited. Protease inhibitors (choice A) are used to treat HIV, not influenza. Beta-lactamase inhibitors (choice B) are used in combination with beta-lactam antibiotics to increase their effectiveness against bacteria, not viruses. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors (choice C) are used to treat HIV by blocking the enzyme responsible for replicating the virus's genetic material, but they are not effective against influenza.
Question 9 of 9
All of the following are symptoms of endocarditis except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: leg swelling. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Symptoms typically include fever, chills, weight loss, and muscle aches due to the body's immune response to the infection. Leg swelling is not a common symptom of endocarditis. It may occur in conditions like heart failure but is not directly associated with endocarditis. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fever and chills, weight loss, and muscle aches are commonly seen in endocarditis due to the systemic inflammatory response to the infection.