What drug should be administered for individual prevention of malaria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (B), Ampicillin (C), and Gentamicin (D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria. Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: leg swelling. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Symptoms typically include fever, chills, weight loss, and muscle aches due to the body's immune response to the infection. Leg swelling is not a common symptom of endocarditis. It may occur in conditions like heart failure but is not directly associated with endocarditis. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fever and chills, weight loss, and muscle aches are commonly seen in endocarditis due to the systemic inflammatory response to the infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a supercapsid is a lipoprotein membrane that encloses the nucleocapsid, providing protection to the genetic material inside. This structure is distinct from the capsid which is the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid. Choice A is incorrect as there is no shell located between the capsid and supercapsid. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the nucleocapsid itself, not the supercapsid. Choice D is incorrect as a protein envelope around the nucleic acid does not specifically refer to a supercapsid.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: psittacosis. Psittacosis is an infection caused by Chlamydia psittaci that primarily affects the lower respiratory tract, leading to pneumonia-like symptoms. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, not pharyngitis (Choice A). Chronic atrophic rhinitis (Choice C) and rhinoscleroma (Choice D) both affect the upper respiratory tract, not the lower respiratory tract. Psittacosis specifically targets the lower respiratory tract, making it the most appropriate answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The male reproductive system is considered sterile as it does not have a natural microbiota. 2. Any presence of microorganisms in this system could indicate an infection or disease. 3. Therefore, choice C, sterile with no normal flora, is the best characterization. Summary: A: Incorrect - The male reproductive system does not typically have gram-positive rods. B: Incorrect - Acid-fast rods are not part of the normal flora in the male reproductive system. D: Incorrect - The male reproductive system does not typically have gram-positive spore formers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Understand haematogenic spread means bacteria traveling through blood. Step 2: Urinary tract infections typically occur due to bacteria entering through urethra, not via blood. Step 3: Choice A states bacterial UTIs are usually after haematogenic spread, which is incorrect. Step 4: Therefore, Choice A is NOT true for UTIs. Summary: B, C, and D are incorrect as they align with typical characteristics of UTIs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud. Sabouraud agar is specifically designed to promote the growth of fungi due to its low pH and high glucose content. The cream-like colonies indicate fungal growth, as fungi often appear as fluffy or powdery colonies on Sabouraud agar. Lowenstein-Jensen is used for mycobacteria, Roux for diphtheria, and Loeffler for Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Therefore, Sabouraud is the most suitable medium for detecting fungal contamination based on the characteristics of the colonies formed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest staphylococci. Step 2: Catalase-positive and coagulase-negative narrows it down to Staphylococcus epidermidis, as it is catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: BCG vaccine. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is used to prevent tuberculosis, which is caused by a bacterium related to anthrax. BCG vaccine can provide cross-protection against anthrax due to its similar mechanisms of action. STI live vaccine (choice A) is used for sexually transmitted infections, not anthrax. Salk vaccine (choice C) is used for polio, and Sabin's vaccine (choice D) is also for polio, not anthrax. Therefore, BCG vaccine is the most appropriate choice for preventing the spread of anthrax among animals in the countryside.