ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 11 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What drug is more advisable for the patient with amebic dysentery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery as it effectively targets the protozoa causing the infection. It has good tissue penetration and high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Pyrantel (B) is used for nematode infections, not amebiasis. Levamisole (C) is an anthelmintic for roundworms and not effective against amoebas. Bicillin-5 (D) is a penicillin antibiotic, which is not indicated for treating amebic dysentery.
Question 2 of 9
A patient's blood culture revealed Gram-positive rods capable of spore formation. They were also motile and produced gas in nutrient broth. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium fits all the characteristics mentioned: Gram-positive rods with spore formation, motile, and gas production in nutrient broth. Clostridium perfringens is known to cause gas gangrene, which aligns with the gas production in nutrient broth. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically produce gas. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and does not form spores that are motile. Bacillus cereus (D) is a common cause of food poisoning and does not cause gas gangrene.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following best describes bacterial conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bacterial conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material through a sex pilus from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. This process allows for the exchange of genetic material and can lead to increased genetic diversity within bacterial populations. Option B is incorrect because the uptake of free DNA from the environment is known as transformation, not conjugation. Option C is incorrect as transfer of DNA by bacteriophages is called transduction, not conjugation. Option D is incorrect because binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria, not a mechanism for genetic exchange.
Question 4 of 9
Choose which one fo the following microorganisms is an example of obligate parasitism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: HIV. HIV is an example of obligate parasitism because it requires a host cell to replicate and survive. It cannot live independently outside of a host organism. In contrast, choices B, C, and D are not obligate parasites. E. Coli and S. Epidermidis are examples of commensal bacteria that can live in the host without causing harm. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be both an opportunistic pathogen and a free-living organism, not strictly dependent on a host for survival.
Question 5 of 9
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. This is supported by the characteristics of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria, as it is a common skin commensal that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (choice D) is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally inhabit specific areas of the body. Blood is considered a sterile environment in healthy individuals, meaning it does not harbor any microorganisms under normal circumstances. In contrast, the intestine, skin, and vagina all have normal flora as they provide suitable environments for various microbial species to thrive. The presence of normal flora in these sites helps maintain a balance and protect against pathogenic invaders. Blood, being a vital and sterile fluid, is not meant to have any resident microbial populations.
Question 7 of 9
A woman hospitalized in the surgical department complains of pain in her lower abdomen and in the small of her back, frequent and painful urination. Urine culture test revealed gram-negative oxidase- positive bacilli that formed green mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can be suspected?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus mirabilis. The patient's symptoms of lower abdominal pain, back pain, frequent/painful urination, and the presence of gram-negative oxidase-positive bacilli forming green mucoid colonies with a specific smell suggest a urinary tract infection caused by Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known for causing UTIs and is characterized by its swarming motility and distinctive odor. A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections but does not typically cause UTIs with the specific characteristics described. B: Mycoplasma pneumonia is a bacterium that causes respiratory infections, not UTIs. C: Str.pyogenes (Streptococcus pyogenes) is a common cause of strep throat and skin infections, not UTIs. D: Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastritis and peptic ulcers, not UTIs.
Question 8 of 9
A wound infection culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is characterized by Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing wound infections due to its ability to produce toxins and enzymes. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause infections. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative and typically causes streptococcal infections, not wound infections. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and typically associated with urinary tract infections. Thus, Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely causative agent based on the given characteristics.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacteria are responsible for causing the disease known as leprosy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium leprae. This bacterium is responsible for causing leprosy because it has a unique ability to infect the skin, nerves, and mucous membranes. It is an acid-fast bacillus that multiplies very slowly, leading to a chronic infection. Clostridium botulinum (choice C) causes botulism, Escherichia coli (choice B) causes various gastrointestinal infections, and Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) causes skin infections and other diseases, but none of these bacteria are associated with leprosy.