What does the anterior drawer test assess in the ankle?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The anterior drawer test assesses the integrity of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) in the ankle. During the test, the examiner stabilizes the tibia while pulling the calcaneus forward. If there is excessive anterior translation of the talus, it indicates a positive test for ATFL laxity or rupture. This ligament is commonly injured in ankle sprains, making it a crucial test for diagnosing ligamentous injuries in the ankle. Choice A is incorrect because the calcaneofibular ligament is not specifically assessed by the anterior drawer test. Choice C is incorrect as the posterior talofibular ligament is not evaluated by this test. Choice D is incorrect as the deltoid ligament is not directly involved in the anterior drawer test assessment of the ankle.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The biceps brachii muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve, which originates from the C5-C7 nerve roots. Compression of the C5 nerve root would affect the function of the musculocutaneous nerve, leading to weakness in the biceps brachii muscle. The other choices, Extensor carpi radialis (ECR), Triceps brachii, and Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP), are not primarily innervated by the C5 nerve root. Therefore, weakness in these muscles would not directly correlate with compression of the C5 nerve root.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tear or avulsion of the anterior glenoid labrum. A Bankart lesion is a specific type of shoulder injury involving the anterior glenoid labrum. The labrum is a ring of fibrous tissue that surrounds the shoulder socket to provide stability. In a Bankart lesion, there is a tear or avulsion of this labrum, typically as a result of shoulder dislocation. This leads to instability of the shoulder joint. Choice B is incorrect because a compression fracture of the posterior humeral head does not involve the labrum and is not associated with Bankart lesions. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different shoulder injury known as a SLAP (Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior) lesion. Choice D is incorrect as it describes compression of nerves and vessels, not a Bankart lesion involving the labrum.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with shortness of breath and respiratory distress is experiencing a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate intervention to ensure airway patency and oxygenation. This falls under the first-level priority, which addresses issues that are crucial for the patient's survival. Postoperative pain (A) is important but not life-threatening. Diabetic teaching (B) can be addressed later as it is not an immediate threat. A small laceration (C) can be managed with basic wound care and is not as urgent as respiratory distress.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer): The nurse recognizes that prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior because an individual's actions and choices greatly influence their health outcomes. By focusing on prevention, individuals can proactively engage in healthy behaviors to reduce their risk of developing diseases or health complications. This approach empowers individuals to take control of their health and well-being, promoting long-term health benefits and reducing the burden on healthcare systems. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect - Disease prevention involves more than just treating the external environment; it also includes individual behaviors and lifestyle choices. B: Incorrect - While some deaths may be unavoidable, prevention strategies can significantly reduce the incidence of many diseases and health conditions. D: Incorrect - Prevention is not solely reliant on treatment provided by primary health care practitioners; it involves a combination of individual behaviors, public health initiatives, and healthcare interventions.