What distinguishes Type V hypersensitivity from Type II?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Type V hypersensitivity involves antibodies stimulating receptors instead of destroying them. In Type II hypersensitivity, antibodies target antigens on cell surfaces, leading to cell destruction. In Type V, antibodies bind to cell receptors, causing abnormal receptor activation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Type V hypersensitivity is not mediated by T cells (A), does not involve immune complex formation (C), and does involve the immune system (D). Therefore, the unique characteristic of Type V hypersensitivity is the stimulation of receptors by antibodies, making choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glomerular basement membrane. In SLE, immune complexes deposit in various tissues, leading to inflammation and damage. The glomerular basement membrane is a common site for immune complex deposition in SLE, resulting in lupus nephritis. The other choices are incorrect because immune complex deposition does not typically occur in the thyroid, peripheral nerves, or mast cells in SLE. Thyroid involvement in SLE is more related to autoimmune thyroiditis, while peripheral nerves are not a major site for immune complex deposition in this condition. Mast cells are primarily involved in allergic reactions and are not a major target in SLE.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it rapidly reverses the symptoms by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and increasing heart rate. It is crucial in preventing severe complications and can be life-saving. Antihistamines (choice A) only target histamine effects, which are not sufficient in managing anaphylaxis. Corticosteroids (choice C) are used as adjunct therapy but are not as immediate or critical as epinephrine. Antibiotics (choice D) are not indicated for anaphylaxis treatment. Therefore, epinephrine is the most appropriate choice for managing anaphylaxis effectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inform the client not to drive or sign legal papers for 24 hours. This is because belimumab can cause dizziness and fatigue as side effects, which may impair the client's ability to drive or make important decisions. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure the safety of the client and others by advising against these activities for 24 hours post-administration. Choice A: Observing the client for at least 2 hours is important for monitoring immediate adverse reactions, but it is not the most appropriate action in this scenario. Choice B: Instructing the client about the monthly infusion schedule is important for treatment adherence, but it is not the most immediate concern after the first dose administration. Choice D: Ensuring emergency equipment is working and nearby is important for safety precautions, but advising the client not to drive or sign legal papers is more directly related to the potential side effects of belimumab.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IFN-γ. CD4+ TH1 cells are known to primarily produce interferon-gamma (IFN-γ). This cytokine plays a crucial role in promoting cell-mediated immunity and enhancing the activity of macrophages. IL-4 (choice A) is produced by CD4+ TH2 cells and promotes humoral immunity. IL-10 (choice B) is an anti-inflammatory cytokine produced by various immune cells. IL-5 (choice C) is predominantly produced by CD4+ TH2 cells and is involved in eosinophil activation. Therefore, the main cytokine produced by CD4+ TH1 cells is IFN-γ, making choice D the correct answer.