ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
What dietary advice should the nurse give to clients with HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease the intake of trace elements and antioxidant supplements. Clients with HIV/AIDS do not require additional trace elements and antioxidant supplements, as excessive intake can be harmful. HIV/AIDS already places stress on the immune system, so taking excessive supplements may lead to toxicity. It is important to focus on a balanced diet rich in essential nutrients rather than overloading the body with unnecessary supplements. Encouraging a healthy, balanced diet will help support overall health and immune function in clients with HIV/AIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because encouraging excessive intake of fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins, iron, and zinc can also lead to potential adverse effects. It is important to focus on meeting the recommended daily allowances for these nutrients rather than exceeding them.
Question 2 of 9
When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH (antidiuretic hormone), leading to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps retain water by reducing urine output. Administering vasopressin helps manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. B: Regular insulin is used to manage diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used to increase urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. D: 10% dextrose is a form of glucose and is not indicated in the treatment of diabetes insipidus.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse understands that labyrinthitis is treated primarily with which of the ff. drug categories?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antihistamines. Labyrinthitis is an inner ear condition often caused by inflammation or infection. Antihistamines help reduce symptoms like vertigo and dizziness by decreasing inflammation and fluid buildup in the inner ear. Anti-inflammatories (choice B) may help with inflammation but are not as effective for inner ear conditions. Antispasmotics (choice C) are not typically used for treating labyrinthitis. Antiemetics (choice D) are used to control nausea and vomiting, which can be symptoms of labyrinthitis but do not address the underlying cause.
Question 4 of 9
After assessment of a client in an ambulatory clinic, the nurse records the data on the computer. The nurse recognizes which of the following as objective data?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because auscultation of the lungs involves direct observation and measurement, making it objective data. This data is based on what the nurse hears through the stethoscope, which can be verified and measured. Choices B, C, and D involve subjective experiences or interpretations that cannot be directly observed or measured. Complaint of nausea, sensation of burning, and belief in demons are all based on the client's feelings, perceptions, or beliefs, which are subjective and can vary from person to person. Objective data is factual, measurable, and observable, making choice A the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proper positioning. Proper positioning helps maintain joint alignment, prevents pressure ulcers, and reduces the risk of contractures by keeping the muscles in a neutral position. This is crucial in preventing complications associated with spasticity. A: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity and lead to muscle fatigue, increasing the risk of contractures. B: Use of tilt board may not directly address the need for proper positioning to prevent contractures. C: Deep massage may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of maintaining proper positioning to prevent contractures.
Question 6 of 9
. A client is diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should anticipate which laboratory test result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum sodium level. In SIADH, there is an excessive release of ADH, causing water retention and dilution of sodium in the blood. This leads to hyponatremia. B: Increased blood urea nitrogen and C: Decreased serum creatinine level are not typically associated with SIADH. D: Increased hematocrit is not a typical finding in SIADH, as it is more related to dehydration. Therefore, the most anticipated laboratory test result in a client with SIADH is a decreased serum sodium level due to dilutional hyponatremia.
Question 7 of 9
A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
Question 8 of 9
A new nurse is working in a unit that uses interdisciplinary collaboration. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Develop good communication skills. In interdisciplinary collaboration, effective communication is essential for teamwork. By developing good communication skills, the nurse can effectively interact with other healthcare professionals to provide holistic care. Choice A is incorrect as the nurse should collaborate as part of a team, not necessarily be the leader. Choice C is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration involves working with professionals from various disciplines. Choice D is incorrect as conflict resolution is an important aspect of effective collaboration.
Question 9 of 9
During the initial assessment, he is placed in a modified Trendelenburg position. What desired effect should the position have on the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The modified Trendelenburg position involves placing the client with their legs elevated higher than their head. This position promotes venous return to the heart, increasing preload and cardiac output, thereby leading to an increase in blood pressure. Elevating the legs helps to reduce peripheral edema and improve circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because the Trendelenburg position does not directly affect the respiratory rate. Choice C is incorrect as the position is not intended to increase heart rate but rather improve venous return. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of the Trendelenburg position is not to decrease blood loss, although it may help in some cases by improving circulation.