What diagnostic procedure is required to make a definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?

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Question 1 of 5

What diagnostic procedure is required to make a definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High resolution multidetector CT angiogram. This diagnostic procedure is required for a definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism because it provides detailed imaging of the pulmonary vasculature, allowing visualization of blood clots in the pulmonary arteries. A: Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis does not directly diagnose pulmonary embolism but may show signs of hypoxemia or respiratory alkalosis, which can be seen in some cases of pulmonary embolism. B: Chest x-ray examination may show nonspecific findings such as atelectasis or pleural effusion but cannot definitively diagnose pulmonary embolism. D: Ventilation-perfusion scanning is another imaging modality used in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, but it is less commonly used compared to CT angiogram due to lower sensitivity and specificity.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient with cystic fibrosis (CF) and understands that treatment consists of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Airway clearance therapies. In cystic fibrosis (CF), mucus buildup in the lungs can lead to infections and breathing difficulties. Airway clearance therapies help loosen and clear this mucus, improving lung function. Antibiotic therapy (B) is used to treat infections but is not specific to CF treatment. Nutritional support (C) is crucial in CF due to malabsorption, but it is not the primary treatment. Tracheostomy (D) is a surgical procedure to create an airway bypassing the upper respiratory tract and is not a standard treatment for CF.

Question 3 of 5

The primary health care provider writes an order to discon tinue a patient’s left radial arterial line. When discontinuing the patient’s invasive line, what is the priority nursing action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply pressure to the insertion site for 5 minutes. This is the priority nursing action because it helps prevent bleeding and hematoma formation after removing the arterial line. Applying pressure for 5 minutes allows for adequate hemostasis. A: Applying an air occlusion dressing to the insertion site is not the priority action. It does not address the immediate need to control bleeding. C: Elevating the affected limb on pillows for 24 hours is not necessary and does not address the immediate need for hemostasis. D: Keeping the patient's wrist in a neutral position is not the priority action when discontinuing an arterial line. It does not address the need for hemostasis and preventing bleeding.

Question 4 of 5

The charge nurse is supervising care for a group of patients monitored with a variety of invasive hemodynamic devices. Which patient should the charge nurse evaluate first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg indicates possible fluid overload or cardiac issue requiring urgent evaluation. This value is high, suggesting increased pressure in the left side of the heart. Additionally, the oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen indicates potential respiratory compromise. This patient needs immediate assessment and intervention to prevent worsening of their condition. Choice A is incorrect as a central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is within normal limits, and the urine output is adequate. Choice B is incorrect as a BP of 110/60 mm Hg is acceptable, and a slightly dampened arterial waveform is not an immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as a pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mm Hg is within normal range, and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2 L of oxygen is acceptable.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient with an arterial monitoring system. The nurse assesses the patient’s noninvasive cuff blood pressure to be 70/40 mm Hg. The arterial blood pressure measurement via an intraarterial catheter in the same arm is assessed by the nurse to be 108/70 mm Hg. What is the best action by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C - Assess the cuff for proper arm size): 1. The cuff blood pressure (70/40 mm Hg) is significantly lower than the arterial blood pressure (108/70 mm Hg). 2. Discrepancy suggests cuff size mismatch, leading to inaccurate readings. 3. Assessing cuff size ensures accurate blood pressure measurement. 4. Ensures appropriate interventions based on accurate readings. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Rapid response not warranted based solely on blood pressure discrepancy. B: Trendelenburg position not indicated for cuff size issue. D: Normal saline bolus not appropriate without accurate blood pressure measurement.

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