ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
What describes a common physical change of aging that can affect an older adult's nutrition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reduced salivary output is a common physical change in aging. This can affect an older adult's nutrition by impacting chewing, swallowing, and taste perception. The decrease in saliva production can make it harder to chew and swallow food effectively, affecting the overall eating experience. Additionally, saliva plays a role in taste perception, so a reduction in salivary output can lead to alterations in how food tastes, potentially impacting an individual's appetite and food choices. Increased gastrointestinal motility (choice B) is not typically associated with aging and would not directly affect nutrition. Abnormal cortisol production (choice C) is related to hormonal changes and is not a common physical change of aging that affects nutrition. An increase in the number of taste buds (choice D) is not a typical change associated with aging and would not have a significant impact on an older adult's nutrition.
Question 2 of 9
Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are most likely associated with disturbed defecation, bloating, and _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abdominal pain is a common symptom of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), along with bloating and changes in bowel habits. Rectal bleeding (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Rectal fissures (choice C) may cause rectal bleeding but are not typically considered a core symptom of IBS. Esophageal paralysis (choice D) is unrelated to the symptoms of IBS, which primarily affect the lower gastrointestinal tract.
Question 3 of 9
How many diet-related major risk factors for coronary heart disease does Mrs. Winslow have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mrs. Winslow has four major diet-related risk factors for coronary heart disease: high total cholesterol, high LDL cholesterol, high triglycerides, and low HDL cholesterol. Choice A is incorrect because there are more than one risk factor present. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not account for the total number of diet-related major risk factors identified.
Question 4 of 9
The ideal time to begin taking folate to prevent neural tube defects is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Folate is crucial before conception to prevent neural tube defects. Neural tube development occurs early in pregnancy, often before a woman knows she is pregnant.
Question 5 of 9
Which hormone is produced in fat tissue and helps regulate body fat by suppressing appetite?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, leptin. Leptin is a hormone produced by fat cells that helps regulate energy balance by suppressing hunger, thus aiding in the regulation of body fat. Glucagon (choice A) is a hormone that raises blood glucose levels, ghrelin (choice B) stimulates appetite, and insulin (choice D) regulates blood sugar levels and promotes glucose uptake.
Question 6 of 9
What is the best dietary advice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best dietary advice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia is to increase vitamin C intake. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of non-heme iron, which can help improve iron-deficiency anemia. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for this condition. Increasing dairy consumption (Choice A) may not directly address the iron deficiency. Reducing red meat consumption (Choice C) may limit heme iron intake, which is easily absorbed by the body. Increasing fiber intake (Choice D) is generally beneficial but is not specifically recommended as the top advice for iron-deficiency anemia.
Question 7 of 9
What dietary factor raises triglyceride levels?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: high refined carbohydrate intake. High intake of refined carbohydrates, such as sugars and white flour, can lead to elevated triglyceride levels, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease. Choice B, low soluble fiber intake, is incorrect because soluble fiber actually helps lower triglyceride levels. Choice C, high iron intake, is incorrect as iron intake is not directly linked to raising triglyceride levels. Choice D, low fat intake, is also incorrect as not all fats raise triglyceride levels; it depends on the type of fat consumed.
Question 8 of 9
Overweight and obesity often accompany conditions such as _____ that limit mobility or result in short stature, which can lead to feeding difficulties.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Down syndrome. Down syndrome is often associated with short stature and limited mobility, which can contribute to feeding difficulties and obesity. Parkinson's disease (choice A) primarily affects motor function, but it is not typically associated with short stature. Muscular dystrophy (choice B) primarily impacts muscle strength and does not necessarily lead to short stature. Multiple sclerosis (choice D) is a neurological condition affecting the central nervous system and does not directly cause short stature or feeding difficulties as seen in Down syndrome.
Question 9 of 9
Which set of guidelines is intended to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intake of a population group, not individuals?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is the correct choice because it is specifically designed to assess the nutrient adequacy of population groups, not individuals. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) (choice A) is the average daily level of intake sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97%-98%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. The Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) (choice C) includes the EAR, RDA, Adequate Intake (AI), and UL, making it a broader set of nutrient reference values. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) (choice D) is the highest average daily nutrient intake level that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population.