ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
What deficits would the nurse expect in a right-handed person experiencing a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Expressive aphasia and paralysis on the right side of the body. In a right-handed person, the left side of the brain controls language and right-sided motor function. A stroke affecting the left side of the cortex would lead to expressive aphasia due to damage to Broca's area, causing difficulty in speaking and forming words. Paralysis on the right side of the body would result from damage to the motor cortex in the left hemisphere. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical deficits seen in a person with a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex in a right-handed individual.
Question 2 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is found in high amounts in these foods. Meats, especially red meats and seafood, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain significant amounts of zinc. Other choices are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are not typically good sources of zinc. Yeast and legumes are good sources of other minerals but not specifically zinc. It is important for the cancer patient to consume zinc-rich foods to support their immune system and overall health during recovery.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is the function of macrophages and neutrophils?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phagocytosis. Macrophages and neutrophils are both types of phagocytes responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens such as bacteria. This process helps in clearing infections and maintaining immune homeostasis. Summary: - Choice B (Complement fixation) is incorrect as it refers to a process where complement proteins bind to pathogens to enhance their removal by phagocytes. - Choice C (Antibody production) is incorrect as macrophages and neutrophils do not produce antibodies. They mainly rely on phagocytosis for pathogen clearance. - Choice D (Suppression of autoimmunity) is incorrect as these cells are involved in innate immunity and do not play a direct role in regulating autoimmunity.
Question 4 of 9
A patient who is being tested for HIV asks what tests are used. The nurse would correct in stating that the tests used to confirm HIV infection are which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial
Question 5 of 9
The physician orders cystoscopy and random biopsies of the bladder for a client who reports painless hematuria. Test results reveal carcinoma in situ in several bladder regions. To treat bladder cancer, the client will have a series of intravesical instillations of bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), administered 1 week apart. When teaching the client about BCG, the nurse should mention that this drug commonly causes:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematuria. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is a type of immunotherapy used to treat bladder cancer by stimulating the immune system to attack cancer cells. One common side effect of BCG instillations is hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. This occurs because BCG irritates the bladder lining, leading to inflammation and bleeding. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so they are aware and can report any excessive bleeding to their healthcare provider promptly. Other choices are incorrect: A: Renal calculi - BCG therapy is not known to cause renal calculi. B: Delayed ejaculation - BCG therapy is not associated with delayed ejaculation. D: Impotence - BCG therapy is not linked to impotence.
Question 6 of 9
Mr. Aurelio diagnosed with heart failure, was prescribed with a 2 gm sodium diet. which of the following foods would nurse Norma instruct him to restrict?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: canned tomato juice. Canned tomato juice is high in sodium content, which would not be suitable for a patient on a 2 gm sodium diet for heart failure. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing heart failure to reduce fluid retention and strain on the heart. Whole wheat bread, beef tenderloin strips, and apples are lower in sodium content compared to canned tomato juice, making them more appropriate choices for someone on a low-sodium diet.
Question 7 of 9
A client on hemodialysis is complaining of muscle weakness and numbness in his legs. His lab results are: Na 136 mEq/L, K 5.9 mEq/L, Cl 100 mEq/L, ca 8.5 mg/dl. Which electrolyte imbalance is the client suffering from?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In hemodialysis, potassium levels can be elevated due to impaired renal excretion. High potassium can lead to muscle weakness and numbness. The client's K level of 5.9 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), confirming hyperkalemia. Na, Cl, and Ca levels are within normal limits, ruling out hypernatremia, hypochloremia, and hypocalcemia as the client's primary electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring and managing hyperkalemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 8 of 9
Which vein should be used first when initiating IV therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basilic vein. It is preferred for IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, and lower risk of complications. Basilic vein is deep and stable, aiding in successful catheter insertion and reduced risk of infiltration. Jugular vein (A) is not typically used due to the high risk of complications like infection. Brachiocephalic (C) and Axillary (D) veins are less commonly used as they are smaller and more prone to complications compared to the Basilic vein. In summary, the Basilic vein is the optimal choice for initiating IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, stability, and lower risk of complications.
Question 9 of 9
Which drug class is used to reduce symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.