ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
What deficits would the nurse expect in a right-handed person experiencing a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Expressive aphasia and paralysis on the right side of the body. In a right-handed person, the left side of the brain controls language and right-sided motor function. A stroke affecting the left side of the cortex would lead to expressive aphasia due to damage to Broca's area, causing difficulty in speaking and forming words. Paralysis on the right side of the body would result from damage to the motor cortex in the left hemisphere. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical deficits seen in a person with a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex in a right-handed individual.
Question 2 of 9
While obtaining a health history, the nurse learns that the client is allergic to bee stings. When obtaining the client’s medication history, the nurse should determine if the client keeps which medication on hand?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions, including those from bee stings. It can help alleviate symptoms like itching and swelling. Keeping Benadryl on hand is crucial for managing an allergic reaction promptly. Other Choices: B: Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is an expectorant used to treat coughs, not allergic reactions. C: Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (Sudafed) is a decongestant used for nasal congestion, not allergic reactions. D: Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal used to treat diarrhea, not allergic reactions.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, and experiences. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective data as it reflects the patient's emotional state. The other choices, A, B, and D, are considered objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. The patient's temperature can be measured (A), the wound appearance can be visually assessed (B), and the patient pacing the floor is an observable behavior (D). Therefore, these choices are not subjective data.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is one of the discharge criteria from ambulatory surgery for patients following surgery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understands discharge instructions. This is crucial for patient safety and recovery post-surgery. Understanding discharge instructions ensures patients know how to care for themselves at home, manage medications, recognize warning signs, and follow-up instructions. Choice A is incorrect as patients should not drive after surgery due to potential impairment. Choice B is incorrect as IV narcotics administration timing is not a discharge criterion. Choice C is irrelevant to the patient's readiness for discharge. Understanding discharge instructions is the key factor in ensuring the patient's well-being and recovery after ambulatory surgery.
Question 5 of 9
A client comes to the clinic complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and a low-grade fever. Physical examination reveals a slight enlargement of the cervical lymph nodes. To assess possible causes for the fever, it would be most appropriate for the nurse to initially ask: a."Have you bee sexually active lately?" b, "Do you have a sore throat at the present time?"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: - The correct answer is A, "Have you been exposed recently to anyone with an infection?" because it helps assess potential sources of infection causing the low-grade fever and other symptoms. - Choice B is irrelevant as the client's current sore throat is not the main concern. - Choice C and D do not address the potential infectious etiology of the symptoms. - Overall, assessing recent exposure to infections is crucial in identifying possible sources of the client's symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who’s hypoglycemic. This client will have a blood glucose level:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, below 70mg/dl, for a hypoglycemic client. Hypoglycemia is defined as low blood glucose levels, typically below 70mg/dl. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, sweating, shakiness, and palpitations. Treating hypoglycemia involves providing the client with a fast-acting source of glucose to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they indicate normal or elevated blood glucose levels, which are not characteristic of hypoglycemia. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize and promptly address hypoglycemia to prevent potential complications.
Question 7 of 9
Mr. Reyea complains of hearing ringing noises. The nurse recognizes that this assessment suggests injury of the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear). This nerve is responsible for hearing and balance. Ringing noises indicate a disturbance in hearing function. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Frontal lobe is associated with executive functions, not hearing. B: Six cranial nerve (abducent) controls eye movement. C: Occipital lobe is related to vision, not hearing. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it directly relates to the symptom described.
Question 8 of 9
The client is taking phenyton (Dilantin) for seizure control. A sample is drawn to determine the serum drug level, and the nurse reviews the results. Which of the following would indicate a therapeutic serum drug range?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (5 to 10 mcg/ml) because this range is typically considered therapeutic for phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Levels below 5 mcg/ml may be subtherapeutic, leading to inadequate seizure control. Levels above 10 mcg/ml can increase the risk of toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are outside the optimal therapeutic range, leading to either ineffective treatment (B, C) or an increased risk of adverse effects (D). Monitoring drug levels helps ensure the medication's effectiveness while minimizing side effects.
Question 9 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is found in high amounts in these foods. Meats, especially red meats and seafood, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain significant amounts of zinc. Other choices are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are not typically good sources of zinc. Yeast and legumes are good sources of other minerals but not specifically zinc. It is important for the cancer patient to consume zinc-rich foods to support their immune system and overall health during recovery.