What clinical specimen can be analysed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections:

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microbiology an introduction test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

What clinical specimen can be analysed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.

Question 2 of 9

Native microscopic slides are good for observation of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Motility. Native microscopic slides are ideal for observing motility because they allow for the observation of living microorganisms in their natural state. By observing the movement of microorganisms on a native slide, one can assess their motility characteristics accurately. Choice B (Division) is incorrect because native slides may not provide the ideal conditions for observing cell division, as it may be difficult to capture the exact moment of division in a live organism. Choice C (Presence of capsules) is also incorrect because observing capsules usually requires specific staining techniques that may not be suitable for native slides. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as native slides are indeed beneficial for observing motility.

Question 3 of 9

Compared to primary immune response the secondary immune response

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the secondary immune response is quicker due to memory B and T cells being already present from the primary response. These memory cells can quickly recognize and respond to the antigen upon re-exposure, leading to a faster and more efficient immune response. Choices B and C are incorrect as the secondary response produces more antibodies and requires fewer antigen stimulations. Choice D is also incorrect as the secondary response is faster than the primary response.

Question 4 of 9

A wound swab from a patient with severe tissue infection revealed Gram-positive rods in chains producing gas. The bacteria were spore-forming. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is a Gram-positive rod that forms chains and produces gas due to its ability to ferment carbohydrates. It is also spore-forming, which helps it survive harsh conditions. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with severe tissue infections and gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a spore-forming Gram-positive rod but is not typically associated with gas production or severe tissue infections. Choice C: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming bacterium that causes tetanus, not severe tissue infections with gas production. Choice D: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not fit the description provided in the question.

Question 5 of 9

The sample used to proving epidemic meningitis is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) is the sample used for proving epidemic meningitis. It should be transported at 37°C to maintain its integrity. Blood and nasopharyngeal secretions are not typically used for diagnosing meningitis. Choice B, feces, is unrelated to the diagnosis of meningitis. Choice C, CSF transported at +4°C, is incorrect as it should be transported at 37°C to prevent degradation of the sample. Therefore, A is the correct choice for proving epidemic meningitis due to the specificity of the sample and the proper transport conditions.

Question 6 of 9

The spore in the cells of Clostridium tetani is located:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Terminally. In Clostridium tetani, spores are located at the terminal end of the cell. This positioning helps the spores to be released easily when the cell lyses, aiding in the spread of the bacteria. Paracentrally (A) and centrally (C) would not be as efficient for spore release. Subterminally (B) is also incorrect as the spores are specifically located at the terminal end of the cell, not just near it.

Question 7 of 9

Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria based on:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cell wall composition. Gram staining differentiates bacteria based on the structure of their cell walls. It classifies bacteria into Gram-positive (thick peptidoglycan layer) and Gram-negative (thin peptidoglycan layer). This differentiation is crucial for identifying bacterial species and guiding treatment choices. Size and shape (choice A) are not specific to Gram staining. Presence of flagella (choice B) is related to bacterial motility, not Gram staining. Genetic material (choice D) is not directly assessed by Gram staining. Overall, the unique composition of the cell wall is the key factor in distinguishing bacteria through Gram staining.

Question 8 of 9

Pili are also called:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: microvilli. Pili are hair-like structures found on the surface of some bacteria, while microvilli are microscopic cellular projections that increase surface area for absorption in cells like intestinal cells. Pili are involved in bacterial adhesion, while microvilli are important for nutrient absorption. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Incorrect choices: A: Fimbriae are short, thin appendages found on the surface of some bacteria, mainly used for adhesion. C: Cilia are hair-like structures found on the surface of some eukaryotic cells, often involved in movement or sensory functions. D: Flagella are long, whip-like appendages used for bacterial motility.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the statements below IS NOT CORRECT

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because live vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent form, although this is extremely rare. This is due to the live attenuated virus in the vaccine potentially mutating back to a more dangerous form. Live vaccines are designed to be weakened but there is a small risk of reversion. Therefore, statement B is not correct. A: This statement is correct as immunocompromised individuals may have adverse reactions to live vaccines due to their weakened immune system. C: This statement is correct as microbes with many serotypes can make it challenging to develop a vaccine that covers all variations. D: This statement is correct as side effects to vaccination, although usually mild and temporary, can occur in some individuals.

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