ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1 Questions
Question 1 of 9
What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is preparing a postoperative nursing care plan for the client recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Establishing rapport with the client is essential in postoperative care to create a trusting relationship, decrease embarrassment, and improve the client's comfort during assessments. Choice B is incorrect because the lithotomy position is not typically recommended post-hemorrhoidectomy. Choice C is incorrect because milking the tube inserted during surgery is not a standard practice after a hemorrhoidectomy. Choice D is incorrect as digitally dilating the rectal sphincter can cause harm and is not a part of routine post-hemorrhoidectomy care.
Question 3 of 9
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin inhibits the action of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. By interfering with the production of certain clotting factors, warfarin helps prevent blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin primarily affects the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors and not platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.
Question 5 of 9
The system used at the division level and forward is comprised of six basic modules. Which module is composed of a dental officer, dental specialist, x-ray specialist, laboratory specialist, and needed equipment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Dental squad. The Dental squad is composed of a dental officer, dental specialist, x-ray specialist, laboratory specialist, and necessary equipment. This module specifically focuses on dental care and services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not include the specific specialists mentioned in the question or focus on dental services.
Question 6 of 9
A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.
Question 7 of 9
A patient on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for which condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Patients on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for osteoporosis due to the medication's potential to decrease bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While long-term steroid therapy can also lead to hyperglycemia, hypothyroidism, and hypertension, the primary concern and most common risk associated with prolonged steroid use is osteoporosis.
Question 8 of 9
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Reporting a decrease in daily weight is crucial when managing nephritic syndrome as it can indicate worsening of the condition or dehydration. It is essential to monitor weight changes closely to assess the effectiveness of treatment and the client's fluid status. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy abruptly can lead to complications; gradual tapering is usually recommended. Choice B is incorrect as diuretics should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider to manage fluid retention. Choice C is also incorrect because increasing dietary sodium can exacerbate fluid retention, which is counterproductive in nephritic syndrome.