ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What assessment finding indicates to the nurse that timolol (Timoptic) has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Timolol and carteolol are available in an ophthalmic form of the drug for reduction of intraocular pressure in patients with open-angle glaucoma. A decrease in intraocular pressure would indicate it has been effective. Timolol can also be used to treat hypertension but an increase in blood pressure would indicate the drug was not effective. Reduced pulse rate and reduced angina would not be related to this drug, especially if it was given in ophthalmic form when very little of the drug is absorbed systemically.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is analyzing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). Which of the following laboratory tests would identify an adverse effect associated with the use of the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dantrolene sodium is associated with hepatotoxicity, making liver function tests essential for monitoring adverse effects. Elevated liver enzymes (ALT, AST) may indicate liver damage, requiring discontinuation of the drug. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are used to assess kidney function, while triglyceride levels are unrelated to dantrolene's primary adverse effects. Regular monitoring of liver function is critical to ensure patient safety during treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A client with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) 4mg/IV every 6 hours to relieve symptoms of right arm weakness and headache. Which of the following assessments will concern the nurse most?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and edema in brain tumors. A client no longer recognizing family members indicates a potential worsening of neurological status, such as increased intracranial pressure or tumor progression, which is a critical concern. Elevated blood glucose and weight gain are common side effects of steroids but are less urgent. Persistent headaches are expected but less concerning than cognitive changes. Therefore, cognitive decline is the most alarming assessment.
Question 4 of 5
A 24-year-old beautician has a history of chronic fatigue since an attack of infectious mononucleosis when aged 20. Her fatigue has become progressively worse. Her periods are painful, heavy and irregular. Her BP is 116/62 (supine) and 92/52 (standing). Serum Na+ is 132, K+ 5.5, creatinine 60 μmol/L. Which of the following would be most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fatigue, orthostatic hypotension (116/62 to 92/52), hyponatremia (Na+ 132), and hyperkalemia (K+ 5.5) post-mononucleosis suggest Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency). Fludrocortisone treats mineralocorticoid deficiency but needs diagnosis first. CBT addresses fatigue psychologically, not endocrine causes. Aciclovir treats viral infections, irrelevant here. Tetracosactide (Synacthen) tests adrenal function, diagnosing Addison's by cortisol response, most appropriate to confirm before lifelong therapy. This diagnostic step ensures accurate management, critical in suspected adrenal failure.
Question 5 of 5
Regarding first pass metabolism:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The extraction ratio (ER = hepatic clearance / liver blood flow) quantifies first-pass metabolism's impact on bioavailability (F = 1 - ER), a true statement. It doesn't directly affect volume of distribution, which is a distribution parameter, so that's false. Oral morphine's bioavailability is ~20-30%, not exactly 15%, but close, though false per key. Phenytoin's extraction ratio is low, not high, due to capacity-limited metabolism. Lidocaine's high first-pass effect prevents oral efficacy, true. The ER formula is foundational in pharmacokinetics, predicting oral drug availability.