What are the symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy?

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Question 1 of 9

What are the symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because during pregnancy, UTI symptoms include painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and lower abdominal pain. Painful urination is a common symptom due to inflammation of the urinary tract. Increased frequency of urination is caused by the pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. Lower abdominal pain can also occur due to the infection. Therefore, all these symptoms are indicative of a UTI during pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass the comprehensive range of symptoms typically seen in a UTI during pregnancy.

Question 2 of 9

A specific clinical feature of respiratory distress syndrome includes

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Grunting on expiration. In respiratory distress syndrome, the infant may exhibit grunting on expiration due to the difficulty in maintaining lung inflation during exhalation. This is a compensatory mechanism to increase functional residual capacity. Grunting on inspiration (choice A) may be seen in other respiratory conditions. Flaring of the nostrils (choice C) is a sign of increased work of breathing but is not specific to respiratory distress syndrome. Neonatal tachycardia (choice D) can be a nonspecific sign of distress and is not a specific feature of respiratory distress syndrome.

Question 3 of 9

R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization. Rationale: 1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery. 2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize. 3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of

Question 4 of 9

When counseling a patient about his surgical options for an ulcer that has been refractory to medical therapy, the AGACNP advises the patient that he will need

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Some form of vagotomy Rationale: 1. Vagotomy is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the vagus nerve to reduce acid production in the stomach, which can help in treating ulcers. 2. Vagotomy is often recommended when ulcers are refractory to medical therapy, making it an appropriate surgical option. 3. Lifelong vitamin D replacement (A) is not typically necessary for ulcer treatment. Excision of the ulcer (B) is not a common treatment and does not address the underlying cause. Eating smaller meals (C) may help manage symptoms but is not a surgical option for refractory ulcers.

Question 5 of 9

In True cephalopelvic disproportion

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In True cephalopelvic disproportion, the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. This condition often requires operative delivery (C-section) as a vaginal birth is not possible. Choice D is correct because operative delivery is indeed needed to safely deliver the baby. Choice A is incorrect as not all patients with cephalopelvic disproportion will necessarily require operative delivery. Choice B is also incorrect as the issue cannot generally be overcome during labor due to physical constraints. Choice C is incorrect as operative delivery is usually necessary in cases of true cephalopelvic disproportion to prevent complications.

Question 6 of 9

A patient being monitored post-heart transplant suffers a bradyarrhythmia. The AGACNP knows that which of the following medications is not indicated as part of emergency intervention for bradycardic abnormalities in a posttransplant patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoproterenol 0.2 to 0.6 mg IV bolus. Isoproterenol is a non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist that can worsen graft rejection in heart transplant patients. The appropriate intervention for bradyarrhythmia in posttransplant patients is external pacemaking or pharmacological agents like atropine or epinephrine. Isoproterenol should be avoided due to its potential to stimulate the immune system and increase the risk of rejection. It is crucial to choose interventions that address the bradycardia without compromising the patient's transplant graft.

Question 7 of 9

Vaginal delivery is possible in

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the baby's head is extended, allowing for descent through the birth canal. Brow presentation (A) and shoulder presentation (C) may require cesarean delivery due to the atypical presentation of the baby. Unstable lie (D) refers to the baby being in a transverse position, which also necessitates a cesarean section. Face presentation is the only option where vaginal delivery may be possible due to the extended position of the baby's head.

Question 8 of 9

In mild preeclampsia, the mother has no complaints.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and swelling. This contradicts the statement that the mother has no complaints. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately states that the mother has no complaints. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any relevant information to address the question.

Question 9 of 9

He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.

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