What are the symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because during pregnancy, UTI symptoms include painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and lower abdominal pain. Painful urination is a common symptom due to inflammation of the urinary tract. Increased frequency of urination is caused by the pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. Lower abdominal pain can also occur due to the infection. Therefore, all these symptoms are indicative of a UTI during pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass the comprehensive range of symptoms typically seen in a UTI during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoroquinolone antibiotics. In this case, the patient presents with signs of sepsis and urinary retention, which are indicative of a possible prostatic abscess. Administering fluoroquinolone antibiotics could potentially mask the symptoms and delay further evaluation and treatment of the abscess. This can lead to worsening infection and sepsis. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid prescribing fluoroquinolones until further evaluation is done to confirm or rule out a prostatic abscess. Incorrect choices: A: Digital prostate examination - This could help in assessing the prostate for abscess or other abnormalities. B: Urinary catheterization - Necessary to relieve bladder distention and assess urine output. D: Drainage of prostate abscess - If confirmed, drainage would be the appropriate intervention to address the abscess.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is Submentobregmatic (choice A) because it refers to the distance from the submentum (chin) to the bregma (anterior fontanelle). This is the appropriate measurement for the brow presentation as the brow is the prominent part between the forehead and the chin. Choice B (Suboccipitofrontal) is incorrect because it refers to the distance from the subocciput to the frontal bone, which is not relevant to brow presentation. Choice C (Occipitalfrontal) is incorrect because it describes the distance from the occiput to the frontal bone, which again is not specific to brow presentation. Choice D (Mentovertical) is incorrect as it denotes the distance from the chin to the vertex, which is not the relevant measurement for brow presentation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute mitral valve regurgitation. The presence of a grade VVI systolic murmur that radiates to the midaxillary line suggests mitral valve involvement. Mitral regurgitation leads to acute onset of symptoms such as dyspnea and pulmonary congestion, indicated by coarse rales on auscultation. The murmur is loudest at the point of maximal impulse due to eccentric regurgitation jet. Acute aortic valve regurgitation (B) typically presents with a diastolic murmur. Acute cardiac tamponade (C) would present with Beck's triad and pulsus paradoxus. Acute pulmonary embolus (D) would present with sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Grunting on expiration. In respiratory distress syndrome, the infant may exhibit grunting on expiration due to the difficulty in maintaining lung inflation during exhalation. This is a compensatory mechanism to increase functional residual capacity. Grunting on inspiration (choice A) may be seen in other respiratory conditions. Flaring of the nostrils (choice C) is a sign of increased work of breathing but is not specific to respiratory distress syndrome. Neonatal tachycardia (choice D) can be a nonspecific sign of distress and is not a specific feature of respiratory distress syndrome.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Ultrasound in monitoring fetal growth can detect fetal anomalies by visualizing the fetus in real-time. It can also monitor placental health by assessing blood flow and position. Additionally, ultrasound can assess amniotic fluid levels to ensure proper fetal development. Therefore, all the benefits mentioned in choices A, B, and C are valid reasons why ultrasound is essential in monitoring fetal growth.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because cord presentation occurs when the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part after the membranes have ruptured. This can lead to compression of the cord during labor, affecting fetal oxygenation. Option B is incorrect as it describes cord prolapse, where the cord lies in front of the presenting part before membrane rupture. Option C describes nuchal cord, where the cord is wrapped around the fetal neck. Option D describes cord abruption, where the cord detaches prematurely from the placenta.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Symptom are absent and abnormal specific laboratory results. Chemical diabetes mellitus refers to a condition where there are abnormal specific laboratory results indicating diabetes without the presence of any symptoms. This classification is based on objective data from laboratory tests rather than subjective symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the definition of chemical diabetes mellitus, which focuses on laboratory results rather than symptoms, congenital abnormalities, or pregnancy outcomes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In True cephalopelvic disproportion, the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. This condition often requires operative delivery (C-section) as a vaginal birth is not possible. Choice D is correct because operative delivery is indeed needed to safely deliver the baby. Choice A is incorrect as not all patients with cephalopelvic disproportion will necessarily require operative delivery. Choice B is also incorrect as the issue cannot generally be overcome during labor due to physical constraints. Choice C is incorrect as operative delivery is usually necessary in cases of true cephalopelvic disproportion to prevent complications.