ATI RN
Anatomy of Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
What are the six dimensions of quality care according to the Institute of Medicine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Safe, timely, effective, efficient, equitable, and person-centered. According to the Institute of Medicine, these six dimensions encompass quality care. Safety is essential to avoid harm. Timeliness ensures care is provided promptly. Effectiveness means care should be evidence-based and achieve desired outcomes. Efficiency aims to minimize waste. Equitability ensures fair and non-discriminatory care. Lastly, being person-centered emphasizes individual preferences and needs. Summary: Choice B is incorrect because transparency is not included in the six dimensions. Choice C is incorrect as low-cost is not a primary dimension of quality care. Choice D is incorrect as it includes cutting-edge, which is not one of the six dimensions outlined by the Institute of Medicine.
Question 2 of 5
An infant is born with a 7 cm × 6 cm lesion over the upper extremity from the elbow to the shoulder. The lesion is indurated and purpuric, with some petechiae around the edges. No other areas of petechiae are noted on the skin. The infant is doing well without other systemic problems. i were 9 and 9. You are called by the pediatric nurse practitioner to the NICU. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain labs, including a CBC with platelet count and fibrinogen. This is the most appropriate next step because the infant's presentation with an indurated and purpuric lesion raises concern for a possible bleeding disorder or coagulopathy. By obtaining labs, including a CBC with platelet count and fibrinogen, we can assess the infant's hemostatic profile and rule out any underlying hematologic abnormalities. This step is crucial in ensuring the infant's well-being and guiding further management if any abnormalities are detected. Why the other choices are incorrect: A: Doing nothing is not appropriate as the presentation warrants further investigation. B: An ultrasound may not provide useful information in this scenario as the lesion is concerning for a systemic issue. C: An MRI is not the initial diagnostic test of choice for evaluating a possible bleeding disorder or coagulopathy.
Question 3 of 5
A study is designed to investigate the rates of central line–associated blood stream infections (CLABSI) among pediatric hematology/oncology patients. Investigators wish to compare the length of stay (LOS) between subjects receiving three common central line types (totally implanted catheter [port], peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC], and tunneled externalized catheter [TEC]). It is discovered that LOS is not normally distributed. What is the appropriate test for comparing the LOS between patients receiving the three central line types?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kruskal-Wallis test. This non-parametric test is used to compare the medians of three or more independent groups when the data is not normally distributed, as in this case with LOS. It is an extension of the Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney test, which compares two groups. The Kruskal-Wallis test assesses whether the medians of the groups are equal or different by ranking all observations, calculating the sum of ranks for each group, and then comparing these sums. It is appropriate here because it allows for comparison of central line types without assuming normality. The other choices (A: Student's t test and B: ANOVA) require the data to be normally distributed, which is not the case in this scenario. Choice C: Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney test is for comparing two groups, not three or more.
Question 4 of 5
When should autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation be used, and what are the common cancers it is used for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation should be used when it can provide a survival benefit over chemotherapy. This approach is particularly beneficial for certain cancers such as neuroblastoma and relapsed lymphoma. - Choice A is incorrect because the indication for autologous transplantation is not solely based on the need for high-dose therapy, but rather on providing a meaningful survival benefit over chemotherapy. The listed cancers are not the most common ones treated with this approach. - Choice C is incorrect because the graft-versus-tumor effect is actually desired in some cases of autologous transplantation, and the listed cancers are not the most common ones treated with this approach. - Choice D is incorrect because the purpose of autologous transplantation is not to avoid extensive chemotherapy but to provide a survival benefit. The listed cancers are not the most common ones treated with this approach.
Question 5 of 5
A young child with consanguineous parents has developmental delay and a history of multiple recurrent bacterial infections and short stature. He presents to the emergency department following trauma and requires a blood transfusion. Blood work identifies leukocytosis, neutrophilia, and the Bombay blood group (absent H antigen as well as absent A and B antigens). What is this patient's diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) Type II. This patient's symptoms of recurrent bacterial infections, leukocytosis, neutrophilia, short stature, and Bombay blood group (lack of H antigen) are characteristic of LAD Type II. In LAD Type II, there is a defect in fucose metabolism, leading to impaired leukocyte adhesion and migration, causing immune dysfunction. Chediak-Higashi syndrome (A) presents with oculocutaneous albinism, recurrent infections, and giant granules in leukocytes. CD18 deficiency (C) is a type of LAD characterized by mutations in the CD18 gene causing impaired integrin function. Griscelli syndrome (D) presents with silvery hair, immunodeficiency, and neurological deficits, not matching this patient's symptoms.