ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Unrelieved pain is a key characteristic, indicating tissue ischemia due to increased pressure within a closed anatomic space. Pallor results from compromised blood flow, and pulselessness indicates severe ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized redness and swelling, fever and infection, and loss of sensation are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 2 of 5
What are the early signs of compartment syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs are typical early indicators of compartment syndrome, suggesting compromised circulation. Choice B, localized redness and swelling, can be seen in conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Choice C, fever and infection, are not characteristic early signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, loss of sensation in the affected area, is more indicative of nerve damage rather than being one of the early signs of compartment syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.
Question 4 of 5
What is the purpose of an escharotomy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure and improve circulation in areas affected by deep burns. This procedure helps prevent complications such as compartment syndrome by releasing the constricting eschar. Choice B is incorrect because while pain relief may be a secondary outcome of the procedure, the primary purpose is to address pressure and circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as an escharotomy specifically focuses on releasing pressure, not removing necrotic tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of an escharotomy is not to prevent infection but rather to address the immediate issues related to deep burn injuries.
Question 5 of 5
What is the first medication to give to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction due to its rapid action in opening airways. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for prevention rather than acute treatment. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in allergic reactions.