What are the recommended cleansing agents for hand hygiene in any setting when the risk of infection is high?

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Infection Prevention and Control NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

What are the recommended cleansing agents for hand hygiene in any setting when the risk of infection is high?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) antimicrobial products for hand hygiene when the risk of infection is high. Antimicrobial products like hand sanitizers containing at least 60% alcohol are recommended as they effectively reduce the number of microorganisms on hands. They are convenient and quick to use in any setting, making them ideal for high infection risk situations. Option A) liquid or bar hand soap is not the best choice when the infection risk is high, as they may not effectively eliminate all harmful microorganisms present on the hands. Option B) cold water is not sufficient for proper hand hygiene as warm water is more effective at removing dirt and microorganisms. Option C) hot water is also not recommended for routine hand hygiene as it can be damaging to the skin and may not necessarily improve the effectiveness of hand cleansing. Educationally, it is important for healthcare professionals to understand the appropriate hand hygiene practices to prevent the spread of infections. Using the correct cleansing agents is crucial in healthcare settings to reduce the risk of healthcare-associated infections and protect both patients and healthcare workers. Regular hand hygiene practices with the right products can significantly decrease the transmission of pathogens and improve overall patient safety.

Question 2 of 5

What are the nine types of standard precautions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of infection prevention and control, the correct answer is A) Hand hygiene. Hand hygiene is a fundamental standard precaution to prevent the spread of infections in healthcare settings. Proper hand hygiene includes washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer before and after patient contact, after removing gloves, and after touching any potentially contaminated surfaces. Option B) The use of appropriate PPE is also a critical standard precaution, but it is not one of the nine types specified in the question. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) includes gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection, which are essential in preventing the transmission of infections when caring for patients. Option C) Care management and option D) The safe use and disposal of sharps are important aspects of infection prevention, but they are not specifically categorized as standard precautions. Care management involves proper patient assessment, isolation precautions, and environmental cleaning, while the safe use and disposal of sharps prevent needlestick injuries and the transmission of bloodborne pathogens. Educationally, understanding the nine types of standard precautions is crucial for healthcare professionals to maintain a safe and hygienic environment for both patients and themselves. By adhering to these precautions, healthcare workers can effectively prevent the spread of infections and promote patient safety. Remembering the key components, such as hand hygiene, appropriate PPE use, and safe sharps disposal, is essential for providing quality care and minimizing the risk of healthcare-associated infections.

Question 3 of 5

Which is not an AIDS defining illness?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Herpes Zoster. The educational rationale behind this is that Herpes Zoster, commonly known as shingles, is not considered an AIDS defining illness. AIDS defining illnesses are conditions that arise due to severe immunosuppression resulting from HIV infection. These illnesses are indicative of the progression of HIV to AIDS. Option A) oesophageal candidiasis, Option B) PCP (Pneumocystis pneumonia), and Option C) CD4 count <200 cells/microL are all AIDS defining illnesses. Oesophageal candidiasis is a fungal infection in the esophagus commonly seen in individuals with compromised immune systems. PCP is a serious lung infection that affects individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV. A CD4 count <200 cells/microL is a key indicator of advanced HIV infection and is used as a criterion for an AIDS diagnosis. In an educational context, understanding AIDS defining illnesses is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those preparing for exams like the NCLEX. It helps in identifying and managing conditions associated with advanced HIV infection, guiding appropriate treatment and care for patients. Recognizing what conditions are considered AIDS defining can also aid in monitoring disease progression and guiding preventive measures to improve patient outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

Which does not require post exposure prophylaxis for rabies?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) skin contact with blood, urine, or feces. Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is indicated when there is a risk of rabies virus transmission through exposure to saliva or nervous tissue from a rabid animal. A scratch, a bite on the face, and a bite on an extremity can all potentially introduce rabies virus into the body through saliva, which is why post-exposure prophylaxis is recommended in these cases. However, skin contact with blood, urine, or feces does not pose the same risk of rabies transmission, as the virus is mainly found in saliva and nervous tissue. From an educational standpoint, this question highlights the importance of understanding the routes of transmission for infectious diseases like rabies. It reinforces the need for healthcare professionals to be aware of which exposures require post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent the development of potentially life-threatening infections. This knowledge is crucial for maintaining a safe healthcare environment and protecting both patients and healthcare workers.

Question 5 of 5

Which atypical pneumonia can be vaccinated against?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) coxiella burnetii. This is because coxiella burnetii is the causative agent of Q fever, which is a type of atypical pneumonia that can be prevented through vaccination. Q fever is transmitted to humans primarily through inhalation of contaminated aerosols from infected animals. Vaccination against coxiella burnetii is essential for individuals at high risk of exposure, such as veterinarians, farmers, and laboratory workers. Option B) mycoplasma pneumoniae is incorrect because mycoplasma pneumoniae causes a different type of atypical pneumonia known as "walking pneumonia," which does not have a specific vaccine available. It is typically treated with antibiotics. Option C) chlamydia pneumoniae is incorrect as well because chlamydia pneumoniae is another causative agent of atypical pneumonia, but there is no vaccine specifically targeting this pathogen. Treatment usually involves antibiotics. Option D) legionella is also incorrect because legionella pneumophila is the bacterium responsible for causing Legionnaires' disease, a severe form of pneumonia. There is no vaccine available for legionella pneumophila, and treatment involves antibiotics. In an educational context, understanding the different causative agents of atypical pneumonia and their prevention methods is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in settings where exposure to these pathogens is more likely. Vaccination is a key strategy in preventing certain types of pneumonia, and knowing which pathogens have vaccines available is essential in providing optimal care and protection for both healthcare workers and patients.

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