ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
What are the priority nursing diagnoses for a client in shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of a client in shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is edema (option B). Shock is a life-threatening condition where there is inadequate tissue perfusion, leading to organ dysfunction. Edema is a common manifestation of shock due to fluid shifts and capillary leakage. By identifying and addressing edema, nurses can monitor fluid balance and prevent complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a client in shock. Increased urine output (option A) may be a concern in some types of shock, but it is not a universal finding, and addressing edema takes precedence to prevent hypovolemia. Hypertension (option C) is not typically seen in shock; instead, hypotension is a common sign due to decreased cardiac output. Hypernatremia (option D) is not a priority nursing diagnosis in shock; electrolyte imbalances may occur but are secondary to the primary issue of inadequate tissue perfusion. In an educational context, understanding the priority nursing diagnoses in shock is crucial for providing effective care to critically ill patients. By prioritizing edema as a nursing diagnosis, students learn to focus on key assessments and interventions to improve patient outcomes in shock scenarios. This knowledge enhances critical thinking skills and clinical reasoning in managing patients with complex conditions like shock.
Question 2 of 5
What are life-threatening complications of shock?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and adult medical-surgical care, understanding the life-threatening complications of shock is crucial for providing safe and effective patient care. In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Kidney failure. Kidney failure, also known as acute renal failure, is a common life-threatening complication of shock. In shock, inadequate tissue perfusion can lead to a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys, causing acute tubular necrosis and ultimately kidney failure. This can result in a build-up of waste products and electrolyte imbalances, leading to serious consequences if not promptly addressed. Option A) Catheter infection is a potential complication of shock but is not typically considered life-threatening compared to kidney failure. Pulmonary edema (B) can occur in shock due to fluid shifts, but while serious, it is often manageable with interventions like diuretics and oxygen therapy. Stasis ulcers (D) are more commonly associated with venous insufficiency rather than shock-related complications. Educationally, understanding the pathophysiology and clinical manifestations of shock-related complications is essential for nurses and healthcare providers. Recognizing the signs of impending kidney failure in a patient in shock allows for early intervention and prevention of further deterioration. By prioritizing the assessment and management of potential life-threatening complications like kidney failure, healthcare professionals can improve patient outcomes and provide holistic care.
Question 3 of 5
A client has undergone the Snellen eye chart and has 20/40 vision. Which of the following is true for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pharmacology education, understanding vision testing like the Snellen eye chart is crucial as it can impact medication administration and patient outcomes. In this scenario, the correct answer is A) The client sees letters at 20 feet that others can read at 40 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is poorer than normal, as they need to be closer to see what others can see from a greater distance. This 20/40 vision signifies that the client can see at 20 feet what someone with normal vision can see at 40 feet. Option B) is incorrect because it suggests that the client can see letters at a further distance than others, which is not the case with 20/40 vision. Option C) is incorrect as visual acuity (20/40) does not pertain to color vision but rather to sharpness and clarity. Option D) is also incorrect as it relates to color vision distances, which are not measured by the Snellen eye chart. Educationally, this question reinforces the importance of understanding vision measurements in clinical practice. Nurses and healthcare providers need to interpret these results accurately to provide appropriate care, such as ensuring patients can read medication labels or dosage instructions. Understanding visual acuity measurements like 20/40 helps in assessing patients' ability to see clearly and ensuring proper interventions are implemented for their visual needs.
Question 4 of 5
In addition to assessing the degree of the client’s impairment, which of the following information should a nurse obtain from a client who has recently turned blind?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) About how the client is coping with the visual problems. This is the most important information to gather because losing vision can have significant psychological and emotional impacts. As a nurse, understanding how the client is coping emotionally and mentally with this new impairment is crucial for providing holistic care. Option A) About the client’s diet, while important for overall health, is not the priority when a client has recently turned blind. Option B) About the client’s allergy history and C) About the client’s family’s medical history are also relevant but not as immediate as assessing the client's coping mechanisms with their new visual impairment. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of addressing the psychosocial aspects of care in addition to the physical. Nurses need to be skilled in assessing and supporting clients through significant life changes, such as loss of vision, to provide comprehensive care. Understanding the emotional impact of such changes is essential for promoting the client's overall well-being and quality of life.
Question 5 of 5
Which eye procedure is used to remove the epithelial layer of the cornea while a laser sculpts the cornea to correct refractive errors?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK). PRK involves removing the epithelial layer of the cornea before using a laser to reshape the underlying corneal tissue to correct refractive errors. This procedure is effective in treating myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism. Option B) Intrastromal corneal ring segments (ICRS) is used to correct mild nearsightedness by inserting small, clear segments into the cornea, not by removing the epithelial layer and using a laser. Option C) Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) involves creating a flap in the cornea, reshaping the underlying tissue with a laser, and then repositioning the flap. It does not entail removing the epithelial layer like PRK. Option D) Conductive keratoplasty (CK) is a procedure used to correct presbyopia, not to remove the epithelial layer and correct refractive errors. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for healthcare professionals working in ophthalmology or optometry to ensure they recommend the most appropriate procedure for patients with specific refractive errors. Additionally, knowing the details of each procedure is essential for passing exams like the Adult Medical Surgical ATI, where pharmacological and procedural knowledge is tested to ensure safe and effective patient care.