ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 5
What are the periods in life when the need for iron increases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy. During pregnancy, the need for iron increases significantly to support the growth of the fetus and to prevent maternal anemia. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin and for oxygen transport in the blood. In contrast, infants require iron for rapid growth and development, making choice B partially correct. Choice C (Old age) and choice D (Male reproductive years) are incorrect as the need for iron typically decreases in old age and remains relatively stable during male reproductive years.
Question 2 of 5
When caring for a client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tactile agnosia. When assessing a client with a parietal lobe brain tumor, the nurse would expect to assess for tactile agnosia as the parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information, including touch and spatial awareness. Tactile agnosia is the inability to recognize objects by touch. This impairment is commonly associated with parietal lobe lesions. Short-term memory impairment (A) is more commonly associated with temporal lobe lesions. Seizures (B) are more commonly associated with frontal lobe lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (D) is associated with occipital lobe lesions. In summary, the parietal lobe tumor would likely manifest as tactile agnosia due to its role in sensory processing, making it the most relevant assessment finding in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A client is scheduled to receive methotrexate (Folex), 0.625 mg/kg P.O. daily, to treat malignant lymphoma. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history. Which of the following drugs might interact with methotrexate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse administers chemotherapeutic drugs to a client with cancer. What adverse effects are most common?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapeutic drugs commonly cause nausea and vomiting due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system. This is because these drugs can irritate the stomach lining and trigger the vomiting center in the brain. Nausea and vomiting are well-documented side effects of chemotherapy and are often managed with antiemetic medications. A: Painful mouth sores are a common side effect of some chemotherapeutic drugs, but they are not the most common adverse effect. C: Frequent diarrhea can occur as a side effect of chemotherapy, but it is less common than nausea and vomiting. D: Constipation is not a common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs; in fact, diarrhea is more commonly seen.
Question 5 of 5
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.