Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

What are the key indicators for cesarean section during labor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all three choices are key indicators for cesarean section during labor. Fetal distress indicates the baby is not tolerating labor well. Failure to progress may lead to complications for the mother or baby. Breech presentation increases the risk of complications during vaginal delivery. Therefore, all three indicators warrant consideration for a cesarean section to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders. A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children. In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.

Question 3 of 5

Bipartite placenta and succenturiate lobe are causes of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Placental insufficiency. A bipartite placenta and succenturiate lobe are structural abnormalities that can lead to placental insufficiency. This is because these conditions can interfere with proper blood flow and nutrient exchange between the mother and fetus, resulting in decreased oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus, leading to placental insufficiency. Placental abruption (choice A), placental calcification (choice B), and placenta previa (choice C) are not directly associated with bipartite placenta or succenturiate lobe and do not specifically cause placental insufficiency.

Question 4 of 5

Which one of the following drugs when used by a pregnant woman is likely to lead to oligohydramnios?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Captopril. Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to oligohydramnios in pregnant women due to its effect on reducing fetal renal function. This can result in decreased amniotic fluid levels. Diazepam (A) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and is not associated with oligohydramnios. Ampicillin (C) is an antibiotic commonly used during pregnancy and does not cause oligohydramnios. Pethidine (D) is an opioid analgesic with no known association with oligohydramnios in pregnancy.

Question 5 of 5

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT with regards to precipitate delivery?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because precipitate delivery, characterized by rapid descent and delivery of the baby, can cause cervical lacerations due to the fast and forceful passage of the baby through the birth canal. This can result in tearing of the cervical tissue. Choice A is incorrect because uterine atony is not typically associated with precipitate delivery. Choice B is incorrect as puerperal sepsis is not directly related to the speed of delivery. Choice C is incorrect as the occurrence of precipitate delivery does not guarantee reduced risk of recurrence with prenatal monitoring.

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