ATI RN
ATI Leadership Questions
Question 1 of 9
What are the final stages of the conflict process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Suppression and resolution. In the final stages of the conflict process, individuals may try to suppress their feelings or behaviors related to the conflict, and ultimately work towards resolving the conflict through communication, negotiation, or seeking a mutually agreeable solution. Antecedent conditions (A) refer to factors that lead to conflict, perceived and felt conflict (B) are early stages of conflict where individuals become aware of the disagreement, and conflict behavior (D) pertains to the actions taken during the active conflict phase. Therefore, C is the correct choice as it specifically addresses the final actions taken to manage and resolve the conflict.
Question 2 of 9
Which question during the assessment of a diabetic patient will help the nurse identify autonomic neuropathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Autonomic neuropathy affects digestion, leading to bloating after eating. This symptom is related to the dysfunction of the autonomic nervous system. Skin changes, insulin dosage changes due to stress, and new ulcerations are not specific to autonomic neuropathy. Bloated feeling after eating is a classic symptom of autonomic neuropathy due to impaired gastrointestinal motility.
Question 3 of 9
Two RNs are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance. Which of the following is a reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because liability policies can indeed cover charges beyond malpractice, such as libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations. This is important as nurses can face legal actions related to various aspects of their practice beyond just malpractice. Option A is incorrect as expenses can still be involved in defending against frivolous lawsuits. Option B is incorrect because it states that the institution can sue the nurse, which is not the primary reason for having liability insurance. Option D is incorrect as nurses can also be sued for malpractice, not just doctors. Therefore, option C is the most comprehensive and relevant reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy.
Question 4 of 9
What is the primary role of a nurse mentor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary role of a nurse mentor is to guide new nurses in their roles (Choice C). This involves providing support, advice, and knowledge to help new nurses navigate their responsibilities and develop their skills. Mentors help new nurses adapt to the clinical environment, build confidence, and improve their clinical practice. Supervising nursing staff (Choice A) is typically the responsibility of nurse managers. Providing emotional support (Choice B) is important but not the primary role of a mentor. Enforcing policy compliance (Choice D) is important but does not encompass the full scope of a nurse mentor's role.
Question 5 of 9
A 32-year-old patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lispro (Humalog). Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that is ideal for mealtime coverage in intensive insulin therapy because it mimics the body's natural insulin response after a meal, providing quick and effective blood sugar control. Lispro has a rapid onset of action, peaks quickly, and has a shorter duration of action compared to other types of insulin. This makes it suitable for covering the rise in blood sugar levels that occurs after meals. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin used for basal coverage, not for mealtime coverage. C: Detemir (Levemir) is an intermediate-acting insulin used for basal coverage, not for mealtime coverage. D: NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin with a slower onset and longer duration of action, making it less suitable for mealtime coverage in intensive insulin therapy.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse manager needs to resolve a conflict between the staff nurses and the physical therapy department. What type of power might the manager utilize? (EXCEPT)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Legitimate power. In this scenario, the nurse manager can utilize legitimate power, which comes from their position of authority within the organization. They can use their formal authority to resolve the conflict between the staff nurses and the physical therapy department by making decisions and enforcing policies. A: Connection and referent power are based on relationships and personal connections, which may not be as effective in this situation where formal authority is needed. B: Reward and punishment power may not be the most appropriate in resolving conflicts as it can lead to resentment and may not address the underlying issues. D: Information power is about having access to valuable information, which may be helpful but may not be the most effective in resolving conflicts that require formal authority.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following can cause negative effects on decision making among groups?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Groupthink can cause negative effects on decision making among groups as it involves prioritizing harmony and conformity over critical evaluation of alternatives. This can lead to group members suppressing dissenting opinions and making hasty decisions without considering all perspectives. Rationalization, risky shift, and dialectical inquiry do not specifically focus on the negative impact of group dynamics on decision making like groupthink does.
Question 8 of 9
What are the final stages of the conflict process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Suppression and resolution. In the final stages of the conflict process, individuals may try to suppress their feelings or behaviors related to the conflict, and ultimately work towards resolving the conflict through communication, negotiation, or seeking a mutually agreeable solution. Antecedent conditions (A) refer to factors that lead to conflict, perceived and felt conflict (B) are early stages of conflict where individuals become aware of the disagreement, and conflict behavior (D) pertains to the actions taken during the active conflict phase. Therefore, C is the correct choice as it specifically addresses the final actions taken to manage and resolve the conflict.
Question 9 of 9
A registered nurse (RN) administered a patient’s morning insulin as the breakfast tray arrived at 0800. The RN performed a complete assessment at the same time. Then, the RN got busy with her other patients and did not check on the patient until 1400. At that time, she found the patient unresponsive with a blood glucose of 23. Both the breakfast and lunch tray were at the bedside untouched. Which of the following could the RN be charged with?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Negligence. The RN failed to monitor the patient after administering insulin, leading to a critical situation. Negligence in nursing involves a breach of duty of care that results in harm to the patient. In this case, the RN's failure to check on the patient for several hours directly contributed to the patient becoming unresponsive with dangerously low blood glucose levels. This constitutes a clear case of nursing negligence. A: Quasi-intentional tort involves intentional actions that result in harm, such as defamation or invasion of privacy. This scenario does not involve intentional harm. B: Misdemeanor refers to a criminal offense less serious than a felony. Negligence in nursing is typically addressed through civil, not criminal, proceedings. D: Juvenile offense pertains to actions committed by minors. The RN is a healthcare professional, not a minor, and the offense here is related to professional negligence, not juvenile misconduct.