ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What are the expected findings in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. In a thrombotic stroke, a blood clot forms in an artery supplying blood to the brain, leading to reduced blood flow to a specific area of the brain. This results in a gradual onset of neurological deficits, such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache and vomiting, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, not specifically thrombotic strokes. Thrombotic strokes typically present with gradual symptoms due to the gradual blockage of blood flow, leading to a progressive neurological deficit.
Question 2 of 5
What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.
Question 3 of 5
What intervention should be done if continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step helps address an air leak in the system, which could compromise its effectiveness. Choice B (Replace the chest tube system) is not the initial step and may be unnecessary if the issue can be resolved by tightening connections. Choice C (Clamp the chest tube) is incorrect as clamping the chest tube could lead to a dangerous increase in pressure within the system. Choice D (Continue monitoring the chest tube) is also not the best immediate action to take when continuous bubbling is present, as prompt intervention is needed to prevent complications.
Question 4 of 5
What are the expected ECG findings in hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are the classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia primarily affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to T wave abnormalities. While prominent U waves are typically associated with hypokalemia as well, flattened T waves are the most specific and sensitive ECG abnormality seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia and are more indicative of other electrolyte imbalances or cardiac conditions.
Question 5 of 5
What lab value is a priority in monitoring a patient with HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. This value guides the initiation of prophylaxis for infections and the timing of antiretroviral therapy initiation. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in monitoring patients with HIV. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess for anemia, serum albumin levels reflect nutritional status, and white blood cell count is more generalized and may not specifically indicate the severity of immunocompromise in HIV patients.