What are the expected findings in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. In a thrombotic stroke, a blood clot forms in an artery supplying blood to the brain, leading to reduced blood flow to a specific area of the brain. This results in a gradual onset of neurological deficits, such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache and vomiting, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, not specifically thrombotic strokes. Thrombotic strokes typically present with gradual symptoms due to the gradual blockage of blood flow, leading to a progressive neurological deficit.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Check for an air leak.' Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Checking for an air leak is crucial to prevent respiratory complications. Choice B is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and requires immediate intervention to address the air leak. Choice C is incorrect as replacing the entire chest tube system is not the initial priority when an air leak is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because tightening tube connections may not address the underlying issue of an air leak and should not be the initial action taken in this situation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. A thrombotic stroke is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms due to interrupted blood flow in the brain. This interruption results in manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache, confusion, seizures, and convulsions are more commonly associated with conditions other than thrombotic strokes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the height helps relieve cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it does not directly address the cramping issue. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, could potentially worsen the cramping by prolonging the discomfort. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, is also incorrect as it may intensify the cramping and cause more discomfort to the patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Gradual loss of function on one side of the body.' Thrombotic strokes typically result in a gradual onset of symptoms due to a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain, leading to a slow progression of neurological deficits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, convulsions, severe headache, and vomiting are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, such as hemorrhagic strokes, epilepsy, or migraines.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Unrelieved pain is a key characteristic, indicating tissue ischemia due to increased pressure within a closed anatomic space. Pallor results from compromised blood flow, and pulselessness indicates severe ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized redness and swelling, fever and infection, and loss of sensation are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is A.