What are the contraindications for alprazolam (Xanax)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that can worsen angle closure glaucoma and exacerbate pre-existing CNS depression. For choice B, hypertension and diabetes are not contraindications for alprazolam. Choice C, asthma and allergies, are not direct contraindications for alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect as alprazolam does have contraindications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A first-generation antipsychotic. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is classified as a first-generation antipsychotic due to its primary use in treating psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, helping to alleviate symptoms of psychosis. Choice B is incorrect because chlorpromazine is not primarily used as an antidepressant. Choice C is incorrect because it is not an antianxiety medication; it is not typically used to treat anxiety disorders. Choice D is incorrect because chlorpromazine is not an anticonvulsant; it is not used to control seizures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bipolar disorder. Lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer for treating bipolar disorder due to its ability to reduce manic episodes and prevent relapses. It is not typically used for depression, anxiety, or schizophrenia, as there are other medications more effective for these conditions. In summary, lithium is specifically indicated for bipolar disorder, making it the correct choice among the options provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Nortriptyline is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant due to its mechanism of action in blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. 2. It is commonly used to treat depression and various mood disorders. 3. Tricyclic antidepressants like nortriptyline are not typically used as antipsychotics, antianxiety medications, or anticonvulsants. 4. Antipsychotics are primarily used to treat psychotic disorders, antianxiety medications for anxiety disorders, and anticonvulsants for seizures. Summary: Choice A is correct because nortriptyline belongs to the class of tricyclic antidepressants, specifically used for treating depression. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as nortriptyline is not classified as an antipsychotic, antianxiety medication, or anticonvulsant.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Opioid overdose can present with respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, coma, unresponsiveness, hypotension, and bradycardia. Respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils are classic signs of opioid overdose due to their effect on the central nervous system. Coma and unresponsiveness can occur as the overdose progresses. Hypotension and bradycardia are also common due to the depressant effects of opioids on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, all the symptoms mentioned in choices A, B, and C are indicative of opioid overdose, making option D the correct choice.