What are examples of type I or IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions (select all that apply)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Asthma. Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE antibodies and involve the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils. Asthma is a classic example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction where the airways become inflamed and narrowed in response to triggers such as allergens. Option B) Urticaria, option C) Angioedema, and option D) Allergic rhinitis are not examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions. Urticaria (hives) and angioedema are examples of type I immediate hypersensitivity reactions, but they are not mediated by IgE antibodies. Allergic rhinitis, although an allergic reaction, is primarily a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is crucial in pharmacology as it helps healthcare professionals identify the underlying mechanisms of allergic reactions and select appropriate treatment strategies. By knowing the specific types of hypersensitivity reactions, healthcare providers can tailor interventions to target the immune pathways involved, leading to better patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) ICU psychosis. The first thing the nurse should suspect as a potential cause of the 82-year-old male patient's decreased cognitive function is ICU psychosis. ICU psychosis is a condition characterized by delirium, confusion, and altered mental status that can occur in patients who are critically ill and hospitalized in the ICU. ICU psychosis is a common occurrence in elderly patients who are in the ICU due to factors such as sensory deprivation, sleep disruption, underlying infections, and medications. The patient's age, critical illness (pneumonia), and being in the ICU are all risk factors for developing ICU psychosis. Option A) Fatigue is less likely to be the primary cause of decreased cognitive function in this case, as ICU psychosis is more common and critical in the ICU setting. Option B) Infection is a valid consideration, but in this case, the patient is already being treated for pneumonia, and the symptoms presented are more indicative of a cognitive issue rather than an acute infection. Option D) Medication allergy is also a possibility, but in this context, with the patient already being treated for pneumonia, ICU psychosis is a more likely cause of the cognitive changes observed. Educationally, understanding the potential causes of cognitive changes in critically ill patients is crucial for nurses working in the ICU. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of ICU psychosis and differentiating it from other conditions is essential for providing appropriate care and interventions to ensure patient safety and well-being.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, option C is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the patient that if the rapid HIV antibody test comes back positive, further confirmatory testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis. This is crucial because the rapid test is a screening test that can sometimes give false-positive results. The patient will require a follow-up blood test for confirmation, as well as a return appointment to discuss the results with a healthcare provider. Option A is incorrect because rapid HIV antibody testing does not measure viral loads; it only detects the presence of antibodies to HIV. Option B is incorrect as while the test is quick, it does not provide immediate confirmation of HIV infection. Option D is incorrect because the rapid test is not used to detect drug-resistant viral mutations; it is primarily to screen for the presence of HIV antibodies. From an educational perspective, it is important for healthcare professionals to emphasize the limitations of rapid HIV testing, the need for confirmatory testing, and the importance of follow-up care for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of HIV infection. This helps ensure that patients understand the process and are not misled by potentially misleading initial test results.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the differences between malignant and benign tumors is crucial for healthcare professionals. The correct answer, D) It invades and metastasizes, differentiates a malignant tumor from a benign one. Malignant tumors have the ability to invade surrounding tissues and spread to distant sites in the body, a process known as metastasis. This characteristic makes malignant tumors more dangerous and harder to treat compared to benign tumors, which are usually localized and do not spread. Option A) It causes death is incorrect because both malignant and benign tumors can potentially cause death depending on their location and size, but it is not a defining factor that distinguishes between the two. Option B) It grows at a faster rate is incorrect as both benign and malignant tumors can exhibit rapid growth. The rate of growth alone does not determine whether a tumor is benign or malignant. Option C) It is often encapsulated is incorrect because while benign tumors are typically encapsulated and well-defined, malignant tumors often lack clear boundaries and can infiltrate surrounding tissues. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing the key characteristics of malignant tumors, especially their ability to invade and metastasize, in order to make informed decisions regarding diagnosis and treatment in clinical practice. Understanding these distinctions is essential for pharmacology students and healthcare professionals to provide optimal patient care and treatment strategies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Prevent breast cancer. This patient with a genetic mutation of BRCA1 and a family history of breast cancer is at high risk for developing breast cancer. A bilateral simple mastectomy, which involves the removal of both breasts, is a risk-reducing surgery aimed at significantly decreasing the likelihood of developing breast cancer in the future. This procedure is considered a preventive measure since it removes the breast tissue where cancer could potentially develop. Option B) Diagnose breast cancer is incorrect because the patient is not undergoing the mastectomy for diagnostic purposes but rather for risk reduction due to the high predisposition to breast cancer. Option C) Cure or control breast cancer is incorrect because the patient does not currently have breast cancer. The surgery is being done to prevent the development of cancer rather than to treat an existing cancer. Option D) Provide palliative care for untreated breast cancer is incorrect as palliative care is focused on improving the quality of life for patients with advanced cancer or serious illnesses. In this case, the patient is undergoing a preventive surgery and does not have untreated breast cancer. In an educational context, it is essential for students to understand the rationale behind risk-reducing surgeries like a bilateral mastectomy in high-risk patients. This case highlights the importance of personalized medicine and proactive measures to prevent cancer in individuals with specific genetic mutations and family histories. It also underscores the significance of patient education, genetic counseling, and shared decision-making in the management of hereditary cancer predisposition syndromes.