What are common complications of multiple gestations?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Multiple gestations are at higher risk for complications such as premature labor, where contractions start before 37 weeks, leading to preterm birth. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome can occur in identical twins sharing a placenta, causing unequal blood flow. Preeclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, is more common in multiple pregnancies. Therefore, all choices A, B, and C are correct as they are common complications associated with multiple gestations.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Sudden rotational injuries can disrupt brain function. Step 2: Abrupt rotation of the cerebral cortex can affect the reticular activating system. Step 3: Disruption of the reticular activating system can lead to altered consciousness. Step 4: Altered consciousness is a hallmark of a concussion. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Concussion. Other choices are incorrect because an epidural hematoma involves bleeding between the skull and dura (A), uncal herniation involves brain shifting through tentorium (B), and contrecoup injury occurs opposite the site of impact (D).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acyclovir. The rationale is that sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) can sometimes be associated with viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that can potentially help treat the underlying viral infection causing SSHL. It is important to address the potential viral etiology before considering other treatments. Summary of other choices: B: Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and edema, not SSHL. C: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, not indicated for SSHL. D: Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is sometimes used for SSHL, but addressing any potential viral infection with Acyclovir would be a more appropriate initial step.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prescribe anti-nausea medication. This is the most appropriate choice to manage hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of morning sickness. Anti-nausea medication can help alleviate symptoms and prevent dehydration. Choice B (Recommend bed rest) may not directly address the nausea and vomiting associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C (Suggest a high-protein diet) and D (Advise on exercise) may not be effective in managing the condition or providing immediate relief from symptoms. Anti-nausea medication is the most evidence-based approach to support a woman with hyperemesis gravidarum.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clonic stage. In eclampsia, the clonic stage is characterized by violent contraction and relaxation of the whole body due to generalized seizures. During this stage, rhythmic jerking movements occur. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Coma stage - In this stage, the individual is unconscious and not experiencing violent body movements. C: Premonitory stage - This stage includes warning signs like headache and visual disturbances, but not the violent body movements seen in eclampsia. D: Tonic stage - This stage involves sustained muscle contractions without relaxation, unlike the alternating contraction and relaxation seen in the clonic stage of eclampsia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Transmural myocardial infarction. Subtotal plaque disruption leads to vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, causing complete occlusion of a coronary artery. This results in ischemia of the entire thickness of the myocardial wall, leading to transmural myocardial infarction. Endothelial cell dysfunction (A) is an early event in atherosclerosis but does not directly result from subtotal plaque disruption. Prinzmetal's angina (B) is caused by transient coronary artery spasm rather than plaque disruption. Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (D) involves incomplete blockage of a coronary artery and typically does not result from subtotal plaque disruption.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A rupture of the uterine wall confined to the tissue. Extra-peritoneal uterine rupture refers to a rupture that does not breach the peritoneal cavity, keeping the damage confined to the uterine tissue only. This is distinct from intra-peritoneal rupture which involves the peritoneum (choice B) and complete rupture of all uterine layers (choice D). Choice A is incorrect as it does not specify the location of the tear, and it does not necessarily imply that there is no organ damage.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation. In left occipito-posterior position, the fetus descends into the pelvis, engages in the maternal pelvis, undergoes flexion to fit through the birth canal, and internally rotates to align with the pelvis for delivery. Choice B (Extension, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in occipito-posterior positions. Choice C (Flexion, descent, external rotation) is incorrect because external rotation is not part of the mechanism in this position. Choice D (Descent, engagement, extension) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in this position.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left ventricle, aortic valve, and aortic arch. 2. The left ventricle is essential for pumping oxygenated blood to the body. 3. Aortic valve controls blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. 4. Aortic arch connects the ascending and descending aorta. Summary: A - Incorrect, as it includes pulmonary veins not related to hypoplastic left heart syndrome. B - Incorrect, as it includes structures not primarily affected in this condition. C - Incorrect, as it does not involve structures related to the left side of the heart.