What accurately describes passive acquired immunity (select all that apply)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Passive acquired immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another. In the context of the options provided: A) Pooled gamma globulin: This is a form of passive acquired immunity where antibodies are collected from multiple donors and administered to provide immediate protection. However, this is not a characteristic unique to passive acquired immunity as it can also be achieved through active immunization. B) Immunization with antigen: This describes active acquired immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce its antibodies. This is not characteristic of passive acquired immunity. C) Temporary for several months: This is correct as passive acquired immunity provides immediate protection but the transferred antibodies have a limited lifespan in the recipient's body, typically lasting for several months. D) Immediate, lasting several weeks: While passive acquired immunity does provide immediate protection due to the presence of pre-formed antibodies, the duration is longer than several weeks. It typically lasts for several months until the transferred antibodies are metabolized and eliminated. Educational Context: Understanding the distinction between passive and active acquired immunity is crucial in pharmacology and immunology. Passive immunity is useful for providing immediate protection in situations where the individual's immune system is compromised or when rapid protection is needed, but it is temporary. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals in determining the most appropriate intervention for different clinical scenarios.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Plasmapheresis is indicated in the treatment of autoimmune disorders because it is a procedure that involves removing plasma from the blood. The correct answer is C) Remove autoantibodies, antigen-antibody complexes, and inflammatory mediators of immune reactions. This is the correct answer because plasmapheresis helps to eliminate autoantibodies that are attacking the body's own tissues in autoimmune disorders. By removing autoantibodies, antigen-antibody complexes, and inflammatory mediators, plasmapheresis aims to reduce the overall burden of harmful components in the plasma that contribute to the autoimmune response. Option A) Obtain plasma for analysis and evaluation of specific autoantibodies is incorrect because plasmapheresis is not typically used solely for diagnostic purposes. It is primarily a therapeutic intervention aimed at reducing the pathogenic components in the blood. Option B) Decrease high lymphocyte levels in the blood to prevent immune responses is incorrect because plasmapheresis does not target lymphocytes specifically. While lymphocytes play a role in autoimmune responses, plasmapheresis is more focused on removing harmful antibodies and complexes. Option D) Add monocytes to the blood to promote removal of immune complexes by the mononuclear phagocyte system is incorrect because plasmapheresis does not involve adding cells to the blood. Instead, it is a process of removing plasma components that contribute to the autoimmune response. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind using plasmapheresis in autoimmune disorders is crucial for healthcare providers involved in managing patients with these conditions. By knowing how plasmapheresis works to remove pathogenic components from the blood, healthcare professionals can better explain the treatment to patients and understand its role in the overall management of autoimmune diseases.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a patient diagnosed with Clostridium difficile and presenting with diarrhea, the correct transmission-based precaution to be used by the nurse is Contact Precautions (Option B). Contact precautions are designed to prevent the spread of infections that are transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Clostridium difficile is primarily spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or objects, making contact precautions the most appropriate choice in this scenario. By wearing gloves and gowns when caring for the patient, the nurse can effectively prevent the transmission of the bacteria to themselves or other patients. Droplet precautions (Option A) are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pneumonia. Airborne precautions (Option D) are for infections that are transmitted through small particles that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Isolation precautions (Option C) is a general term that encompasses different types of precautions, including contact, droplet, and airborne precautions. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of transmission-based precautions is crucial for healthcare professionals to prevent the spread of infections within healthcare settings. By correctly identifying the specific precautions needed for different pathogens, nurses can provide safe and effective care while minimizing the risk of healthcare-acquired infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Kaposi sarcoma. Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) that often presents with hyperpigmented lesions on the skin, mucous membranes, lungs, and GI tract in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS. These lesions can be purple, brown, or red in color and are a hallmark of Kaposi sarcoma. Option B) Candida albicans is a fungal infection that commonly affects individuals with compromised immune systems, but it does not typically present with hyperpigmented lesions. Candidiasis is more commonly associated with white, patchy lesions in the mouth or genital area. Option C) Herpes simplex type 1 infection and Option D) Varicella-zoster virus infection both present with characteristic lesions (cold sores for herpes simplex and chickenpox or shingles for varicella-zoster), but these do not manifest as hyperpigmented lesions seen in Kaposi sarcoma. Understanding the characteristic presentations of opportunistic infections in individuals with AIDS is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment. Recognizing the specific signs and symptoms of each infection helps in timely diagnosis and management, ultimately improving patient outcomes and quality of life.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Indiscriminate and continuous proliferation of cells with loss of contact inhibition. This option accurately describes a key defect in cellular proliferation that is involved in the development of cancer. Cancer cells lose the ability to stop dividing when they come into contact with other cells (contact inhibition) and continue to proliferate uncontrollably. Option A is incorrect because a rapid rate of cell proliferation alone is not indicative of cancer, as it can occur in normal physiological processes like wound healing. Option B is incorrect as skipping phases of the cell cycle is not a defining characteristic of cancer. Option C is incorrect as rearrangement of stem cell RNA leading to abnormal protein synthesis is not a common mechanism in the development of cancer. Educationally, understanding the defect in cellular proliferation that contributes to cancer development is crucial in pharmacology. By grasping this concept, healthcare professionals can comprehend the rationale behind anti-cancer drugs that target cell proliferation pathways. It also highlights the importance of regulating cell growth and division to prevent uncontrolled proliferation seen in cancer.