Water transport can occur from the lumen of the intestine to the blood stream, or from the blood stream to the intestinal lumen. Which single statement about this phenomenon, below, is actually correct?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because water is indeed mostly absorbed by movement between the cells lining the gut (enterocytes) via tight junctions. This is known as paracellular transport. Water moves through the spaces between the cells due to osmotic gradients and is then taken up by blood vessels. A: The 'flip-flop' mechanism is not a recognized mechanism for water transport in the intestine. B: Water does not flow into the gut from the mucosa during digestion, rather it moves from the gut lumen into the blood. D: Dietary intake of water can vary and may not always be greater than water movement in the small intestine.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: liver. The breakdown of glycogen in the liver is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels through a process called glycogenolysis. The liver releases glucose into the bloodstream to prevent hypoglycemia and provide energy to the body. Skeletal muscle (A) stores glycogen for its own energy needs, not for blood glucose maintenance. The pancreas (B) regulates blood glucose through insulin and glucagon secretion but does not directly breakdown glycogen. Adipose tissue (D) stores fat and does not play a significant role in glycogen breakdown for blood glucose maintenance.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the LPN/LVN can provide care for a client with intractable nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy under the supervision of an RN. The LPN/LVN can administer prescribed antiemetic medications, monitor the client's response, assess for dehydration, and provide comfort measures. This task falls within the scope of practice for an LPN/LVN and does not require the advanced assessment and intervention skills of an RN. Choice A is incorrect because a client undergoing a glossectomy for oral cancer requires complex post-operative care that is beyond the scope of practice for an LPN/LVN. Choice B is incorrect because post-operative care for an obese client following a vertical banded gastroplasty involves monitoring for complications such as leaks or infections, which require the expertise of an RN. Choice C is incorrect because a client with anorexia nervosa with muscle weakness and decreased urine output may have underlying medical issues that require an RN's assessment and intervention skills

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Radionuclide imaging. This test involves exposing the patient to radiation, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Pregnant women should avoid unnecessary exposure to radiation to prevent potential harm to the baby. A: Barium enema and B: Barium swallow involve the use of contrast material that is generally considered safe during pregnancy as it does not expose the fetus to radiation. D: Gallbladder series test, such as ultrasound or MRI, are also safe for pregnant women as they do not involve radiation exposure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Colonoscopy. Beginning at age 50, it is recommended every 10 years to screen for colorectal cancer. This screening test is essential for early detection and prevention of colon cancer. Colonoscopy allows for direct visualization of the colon and removal of any precancerous polyps. Choice B: Ultrasound of the kidney is not a recommended screening test for a 55-year-old female. Kidney ultrasound is typically used for evaluating specific kidney conditions, not as a routine screening test. Choice C: Mammogram is typically recommended for breast cancer screening in women starting at age 40, not every 10 years after age 50. Choice D: Pap smear is used for cervical cancer screening, typically starting at age 21 and continuing every 3-5 years, not every 10 years after age 50.