VT has a history of subtherapeutic anticoagulation on warfarin (due to poor adherence) until the administration time was changed from evening to morning. The patient also frequently skips meals and takes antacids for reflux. The patient wants to take all medications at the same time of day. Select the statin that is optimal for this patient wanting to take medications in the morning.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atorvastatin (Lipitor). Atorvastatin has a long half-life and can be taken at any time of day, making it suitable for this patient who wants to take all medications in the morning. Lovastatin, Fluvastatin, and Pravastatin have shorter half-lives and are typically recommended to be taken in the evening for optimal efficacy. Therefore, they are not ideal for this patient who wants to consolidate medication administration in the morning.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (TRUE). Metoclopramide (Reglan) does carry a black box warning due to the risk of tardive dyskinesia with long-term use. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face and body and can be irreversible. The warning emphasizes the importance of using metoclopramide for the shortest duration possible to minimize this risk. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because the black box warning for tardive dyskinesia associated with metoclopramide is a well-documented fact supported by clinical evidence and regulatory agencies.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that promote inflammation, pain, and fever. By inhibiting their synthesis, NSAIDs reduce inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect as the chemoreceptor trigger zone is not related to the anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs. Choice B is also incorrect as NSAIDs do not reset the hypothalamic 'setpoint'. Choice C is incorrect as the correct answer is D.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: NMDA receptor antagonist. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist, which means it blocks the activity of NMDA receptors, specifically by binding to the receptor-operated cation channels and blocking the excessive influx of calcium ions. This mechanism helps regulate glutamate activity and prevents excitotoxicity. Choices A and B are incorrect because memantine is not related to GABA function or concentration. Choice D is incorrect as an NMDA receptor agonist would increase receptor activity, opposite to memantine's action.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depression. SNRIs are commonly prescribed for depression as they work by increasing levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which help regulate mood. In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically indications for SNRIs. CHF (A) is treated with medications that help the heart function better, acute pancreatitis (B) is managed with pain control and supportive care, and autism (D) is managed with behavioral therapies and sometimes medications targeting specific symptoms. Hence, depression (C) is the most likely indication for SNRIs based on their mechanism of action and common therapeutic uses.