Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest X-ray. The nurse is aware that which of the following reasons this is done?

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Question 1 of 5

Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest X-ray. The nurse is aware that which of the following reasons this is done?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To determine the extent of lesions. A chest X-ray is done to evaluate the presence and extent of lesions in the lungs, which helps in assessing the severity of tuberculosis infection. This is important for determining the appropriate treatment plan and monitoring the progression of the disease. Incorrect answers: A: To confirm the diagnosis - Chest X-ray alone cannot confirm the diagnosis of tuberculosis, as other tests such as sputum culture or PCR are needed. B: To determine if a repeat skin test is needed - Chest X-ray is not used to determine the need for a repeat skin test, as the decision for repeat testing is based on clinical judgment and guidelines. D: To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection - Chest X-ray may provide some information, but the distinction between primary and secondary infection is usually based on clinical history and other diagnostic tests.

Question 2 of 5

A male client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sigmoidoscopy. This diagnostic study is used to visualize the lower part of the colon and rectum, allowing for direct visualization of any abnormal growths or masses. It is an essential tool for diagnosing colorectal cancer as it can detect polyps or tumors. Stool Hematest (A) is used to detect blood in the stool but does not confirm the diagnosis. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) (B) is a tumor marker that can be elevated in colorectal cancer but is not diagnostic by itself. Abdominal CT scan (D) can provide detailed images of the abdomen but is not as specific for diagnosing colorectal cancer as sigmoidoscopy.

Question 3 of 5

Heberden's nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis. Which of the following statement is correct about this deformity?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: It appears on the distal interphalangeal joint. Heberden's nodes are bony enlargements that occur at the distal interphalangeal joints, which are the joints closest to the fingertips. The nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis in the fingers. They do not appear only in men (choice A), they do not appear on the proximal interphalangeal joint (choice C), and they do not appear on the dorsolateral aspect of the interphalangeal joint (choice D). The key to identifying Heberden's nodes is their location at the distal interphalangeal joint.

Question 4 of 5

A female client tells nurse Nikki that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client's efforts, the nurse should check:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average of blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, reflecting the client's long-term glycemic control. It is a better indicator of overall diabetes management compared to other options. Urine glucose level (A) only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing and is not a reliable long-term measure. Fasting blood glucose level (B) gives a point-in-time reading and may not reflect overall control. Serum fructosamine level (C) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 weeks, which is shorter than the timeframe needed to assess the client's 3-month efforts.

Question 5 of 5

After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. Nurse Celestina suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer epinephrine, as prescribed, and prepare to intubate the client if necessary. In anaphylactic shock, immediate administration of epinephrine is crucial to reverse the severe allergic reaction. Intubation may be necessary to maintain airway patency in case of severe respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because paging an anesthesiologist and preparing for intubation should not be the first action; administering epinephrine takes precedence. Choice C is incorrect as administering an antidote for penicillin would not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylactic shock. Choice D is incorrect as inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids are not the priority actions in managing anaphylactic shock.

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