ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
Victorio is being managed for diarrhea. Which outcome indictes that fluid resuscitation is successful?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because firm skin turgor indicates adequate hydration, a key goal of fluid resuscitation in diarrhea management. Firm skin turgor reflects the body's fluid balance and hydration status. When fluid resuscitation is successful, the patient's skin turgor improves due to replenished fluid levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly assess hydration status or the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation. Passing formed stools, decrease in stool frequency, and absence of perianal burning may be positive outcomes in diarrhea management, but they do not specifically indicate successful fluid resuscitation.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse assesses that a patient has not voided in 6 hours. Which question should the nurse ask to assist in establishing a nursing diagnosis of Urinary retention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Asking if the patient feels the need to go to the bathroom helps assess urgency. 2. Urinary retention may lead to the inability to sense the urge to void. 3. This question directly addresses the issue of voiding, crucial in diagnosing urinary retention. Summary: B: Mobility is not directly related to urinary retention. C: Medication timing is important but not directly related to urinary retention. D: Safety rail inquiry is more related to fall prevention, not urinary retention.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse approaches a hospitalized poststroke patient from the patient’s left side to do an assessment. The patient is staring straight ahead, and does not respond to the nurse’s presence or voice. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. By approaching the patient from the other side, the nurse can assess if the patient has a visual field deficit. 2. This step helps determine if the lack of response is due to a sensory issue. 3. It allows the nurse to rule out unilateral neglect or hemianopsia. 4. Walking to the other side is a basic assessment technique to evaluate visual and sensory deficits in poststroke patients. Other Choices: B. Speaking more loudly and clearly may not address the potential sensory issues the patient is experiencing. C. Waving fingers in front of the patient's face does not provide a comprehensive assessment of visual field deficits. D. Using a picture may be helpful, but addressing the potential visual field deficit should be prioritized first.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse understands that an anaphylactic reaction is considered which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. In Type I hypersensitivity, anaphylactic reactions involve immediate IgE-mediated responses to allergens, leading to histamine release and potentially life-threatening symptoms. This type of reaction is characterized by rapid onset and systemic involvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition leading to inflammation (B), Type II reactions involve cytotoxic antibodies targeting cells (C), and Type IV reactions involve delayed cell-mediated responses (D).
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of Impaired skin integrity. The patient needs many nursing interventions, including a dressing change, several intravenous antibiotics, and a walk. Which factors does the nurse consider when prioritizing interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because ranking all the patient's nursing diagnoses in order of priority allows the nurse to address the most critical needs first. By prioritizing based on the urgency and potential impact on the patient's health, the nurse can ensure that interventions are carried out effectively. B is incorrect because priorities may need to be adjusted based on the patient's changing condition. C is incorrect as priorities should consider not only physiological but also psychological and sociological factors. D is incorrect because time is an influencing factor, but it should not be the sole consideration when prioritizing interventions.
Question 6 of 9
Which drug class is used to reduce symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client after thyroidectomy for Grave’s disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Patients with Grave's disease who undergo thyroidectomy require regular follow-up care for monitoring thyroid hormone levels and overall health. Step 2: Regular follow-up care ensures early detection of any complications or recurrence of the disease. Step 3: Monitoring helps in adjusting medication doses and managing any potential side effects. Step 4: Choice A is important but not specific to thyroidectomy for Grave's disease. Choice B is not typically used post-thyroidectomy. Choice D may be beneficial but not a priority compared to regular follow-up care.
Question 8 of 9
Mr. Mendres asks Nurse Rose what causes peptic ulcer to develop. Nurse Rose responds that recent research indicates that peptic ulcers are the result of which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium is a major cause of peptic ulcers by weakening the protective mucous layer of the stomach and duodenum. Research has shown a strong association between H. pylori infection and peptic ulcer development. Genetic defects in the gastric mucosa (choice A) are not a proven cause of peptic ulcers. While a high-fat diet (choice C) can exacerbate symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Work-related stress (choice D) may exacerbate symptoms but is not a direct cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, choice B is the most supported and logical answer based on current research findings.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is intervening for a patient that has a risk for a urinary infection. Which direct care nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teaches proper handwashing technique. This is the most appropriate intervention because proper handwashing can help prevent the spread of infection, including urinary infections. Teaching the patient about handwashing empowers them to take control of their own hygiene, reducing the risk of infection. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Properly cleans the patient's toilet - While important for maintaining cleanliness, this does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection. C: Transports urine specimen to the lab - This is not a direct care intervention for preventing urinary infections. D: Informs the oncoming nurse during hand-off - Hand-off communication is important for continuity of care but does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection.