Verapamil is a more potent vasodilator than nifedipine This statement is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that primarily acts on the heart and has limited vasodilatory effects. Nifedipine, on the other hand, is a potent vasodilator that primarily acts on blood vessels. Therefore, the statement that verapamil is a more potent vasodilator than nifedipine is FALSE. Other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect because verapamil is not a more potent vasodilator compared to nifedipine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH). The hypothalamus, not a gland, produces GHRH to stimulate the pituitary gland to release growth hormone. Choice B (FSH) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Choice C (Aldosterone) is produced by the adrenal glands. Choice D (Estradiol) is a form of estrogen produced by the ovaries. Therefore, only choice A aligns with the role of the hypothalamus in regulating hormone release.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because chlorpropamide has a longer duration of action compared to tolbutamide. Chlorpropamide has a half-life of around 36 hours, whereas tolbutamide's half-life is about 5 hours. This means that chlorpropamide stays in the body and continues to lower blood sugar levels for a longer period of time compared to tolbutamide. Choices A and C are incorrect as they suggest that the durations of action are equal or that tolbutamide has a longer duration, which is not the case based on their pharmacokinetics. Choice D is also incorrect as it does not address the specific comparison between tolbutamide and chlorpropamide.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a propionic acid derivative due to its chemical structure. It belongs to the same class of NSAIDs as naproxen and ketoprofen, which are also propionic acid derivatives. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase, thereby reducing inflammation, pain, and fever. Choice B, Indomethacin, is incorrect as it is an acetic acid derivative. Choice C, Metamizole (Analgin), is incorrect as it is a pyrazolone derivative. Choice D, Diclofenac, is incorrect as it is an acetic acid derivative.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 19 hours. The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the body to reduce by half. Cyclosporine A has a half-life of approximately 19 hours, meaning that it takes 19 hours for the concentration of cyclosporine A in the body to decrease by half. This is the most accurate description of the half-life of cyclosporine A. Choice A (25-35 minutes) is too short for the half-life of cyclosporine A, as it typically stays in the body for a longer duration. Choice B (21 days) is too long for the half-life of cyclosporine A, as this is more commonly seen in drugs with very long half-lives. Choice C (4 - 16 hours) is closer to the correct answer, but 19 hours is a more precise estimate for the half-life of cyclospor