ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade IIVI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Baseline cardiac catheterization. Given the presence of a new onset grade IIVI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur, a baseline cardiac catheterization is necessary to assess the severity and etiology of the murmur. This procedure will provide crucial information on the structure and function of the heart, helping to determine the appropriate management plan. A: Annual or biannual serial echocardiography is not necessary as the patient is currently asymptomatic and echocardiography has already revealed mild aortic calcification. B: Modification of activity level is not the immediate priority as the patient is very active physically and not reporting any limitations to daily activities. D: Statin therapy is not indicated based solely on the presence of a new murmur without further assessment of cardiac function through cardiac catheterization.
Question 2 of 5
Pneumatosis, or gas cysts, may form in the wall anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract in some cases, they will produce symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, diarrhea with mucus, and excess flatulence. Treatment of pneumatosis most often involves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is the most effective treatment for pneumatosis as it helps to reduce gas cysts by increasing oxygen levels in the tissues. This promotes healing and resolution of the condition. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask - Regular oxygen therapy is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen in treating pneumatosis. C: Surgical resection - Surgical resection is not typically the first-line treatment for pneumatosis and is usually reserved for severe cases or complications. D: Treatment of underlying disease - While treating the underlying disease is important, it may not directly address the gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy targets the gas cysts specifically.
Question 3 of 5
The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Post-splenectomy, platelet count typically drops temporarily, leading to a risk of bleeding. Step 2: To compensate, the body increases hemoglobin (Hgb) levels to maintain oxygen-carrying capacity. Step 3: Therefore, on postoperative day 2, an increased Hgb level is expected. Summary: A is incorrect because MCV is not typically affected in this scenario. C is incorrect because platelet count usually decreases post-splenectomy. D is incorrect as albumin levels are not directly impacted by splenectomy for ITP.
Question 4 of 5
T. O. is a 44-year-old female patient who presents for evaluation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain. She is clear about the onset, which was profound and occurred approximately one hour ago. She denies that the onset had any relationship to food or eating, and she denies nausea or vomiting. On examination, she is lying on her right side with her hips and knees flexed to draw her knees to her chest. Vital signs are stable, but examination reveals involuntary guarding. The abdomen is painful and tympanic to percussion in all quadrants. CBC reveals a white blood cell count of 15,600L. The AGACNP suspects
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The clinical presentation of sudden, severe upper abdominal pain not related to food intake, along with the patient's position (lying on right side with hips and knees flexed), and presence of involuntary guarding suggest acute pancreatitis. The elevated white blood cell count indicates an inflammatory process. Dissecting aortic aneurysm (A) typically presents with abrupt, severe chest or back pain radiating to the abdomen, with signs of shock. Perforated peptic ulcer (C) presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain often related to food intake, with signs of peritonitis. Mallory-Weiss tear (D) presents with hematemesis after forceful or prolonged vomiting.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake helps decrease ammonia production. Excessive ammonia leads to neurological symptoms. Lactulose (choice A) is correct for hepatic encephalopathy as it helps eliminate ammonia through the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic and not indicated for hepatic encephalopathy. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sleep aid and not relevant to managing ammonia accumulation. In summary, choice C is correct because it directly targets the underlying issue of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy, while the other choices do not address this specific concern.