ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleeps for a period of time. After a seizure, the brain and body experience fatigue and exhaustion. It is common for the patient to feel drowsy and require rest to recover. This post-ictal state is characterized by sleepiness and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because typically, after a seizure, the patient is not most comfortable walking and moving about (A), does not become restless and agitated (C), and may not immediately express thirst and hunger (D). It is important to ensure the patient is in a safe environment and allow them to rest after a seizure episode.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is an intraoperative outcome for a patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintains skin integrity. During inguinal hernia repair surgery, maintaining skin integrity is crucial to prevent infection and ensure proper wound healing. This outcome focuses on the physical aspect of the surgery and reflects the patient's skin condition postoperatively. Verbalizing fears (A) addresses emotional concerns, demonstrating leg exercises (B) is related to postoperative rehabilitation, and explaining deep breathing exercises (D) targets respiratory function, none of which directly assess the intraoperative outcome of skin integrity.
Question 3 of 9
While bathing the client, the nurse observes the client grimacing. The nurse asks if the client is experiencing pain. The client nods yes and refuses to continue the bath. The nurse removes the wash basin, makes the client comfortable, and documents the event in the client’s chart. Which of the following actions clearly demonstrates assessing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking the client if they are experiencing pain is a direct action of assessment. This step involves gathering information directly from the client to understand their condition and needs. By asking the client about pain, the nurse is actively assessing the client's well-being. A: The nurse bathing the client is not an action of assessment but rather a task related to providing care. B: The nurse documenting the incident is important for recording the event but does not directly involve assessing the client's condition. D: The nurse removing the wash basin is a task related to the physical care process and does not involve direct assessment of the client's well-being.
Question 4 of 9
A home care nurse is assessing a client who is taking prazosin (Minipress). Which statement by the client would support the nursing diagnosis of noncompliance with medication therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the correct answer - C: “I feel dizzy, I’ll skip my dose for a few days.” Step 2: Explanation - This statement indicates that the client is experiencing a known side effect of prazosin (dizziness) and plans to stop the medication temporarily without consulting the healthcare provider, showing noncompliance. Step 3: Supporting details - Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment and potential health risks. Step 4: Comparison with other choices: A: This statement shows the client questioning the need for medication but does not indicate current noncompliance. B: This statement demonstrates difficulty reading labels but does not directly relate to medication compliance. D: This statement shows awareness about medication interactions but does not indicate noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen. Summary: Choice C is correct as it directly reflects noncompliance by planning to skip doses without consulting the healthcare provider, leading to potential adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate the
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following diets would the nurse include in the plan of care for a person with AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A high-protein, high-calorie diet divided into six small meals. For a person with AIDS, this diet is beneficial to maintain muscle mass, support immune function, and provide energy. High-protein helps in tissue repair, while high-calorie intake helps combat weight loss common in AIDS. Dividing into small frequent meals aids in digestion and absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide enough calories for the increased energy needs of a person with AIDS. Choice C is incorrect because a high-carbohydrate, fat-restricted diet may not provide sufficient protein for muscle maintenance. Choice D is incorrect because a high-fat diet may lead to weight gain and can be harder to digest for someone with compromised immunity.
Question 6 of 9
The client is a type II DM patient. The client asks the nurse what is the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop diabetic ketoacidosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct answer): - In type II DM, there is some insulin present but it is insufficient to meet the body's needs. - Without sufficient insulin, the body turns to breaking down protein and fatty acids for energy. - This leads to the formation of ketones, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). - Therefore, the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop DKA is due to insufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acids for metabolic needs. Summary of other choices: - Choice A is incorrect because there is some insulin available in type II DM, though it may be insufficient. - Choice B is incorrect as type II diabetics do have fat and protein reserves. - Choice D is incorrect as insufficient serum glucose concentrations do not directly relate to the development of DKA in type II DM.
Question 7 of 9
A patient exhibits the following symptoms: tachycardia, increased thirst, headache, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. The nurse analyzes the data. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse assign to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume. The patient's symptoms indicate dehydration, as evidenced by tachycardia, increased thirst, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. This points to a lack of fluid in the body. Option A, adult failure to thrive, does not address the immediate issue of fluid volume. Option B, hypothermia, is incorrect as the patient has an increased body temperature. Option D, nausea, is not a primary issue compared to the symptoms indicating dehydration. Therefore, the correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume.
Question 8 of 9
Management of the foregoing patient should include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a regular diet with extra fruits and green vegetables can provide essential nutrients for overall health, potassium-sparing diuretics can help manage potassium levels in the body, and discontinuing oral magnesium salts can prevent further complications in the patient. Option A focuses on promoting a healthy diet, B addresses specific medication for potassium management, and C avoids potential interactions with magnesium salts. Therefore, all of the measures (A, B, and C) are necessary for comprehensive management of the patient's condition.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is instructing a client with newly diagnosed hypoparathyroidism about the regimen used to treat this disorder. The nurse should state that the physician probably will prescribe daily supplements of calcium and:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin D. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. Vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines, thus aiding in maintaining normal calcium levels. It is often prescribed along with calcium supplements to support bone health and prevent complications. Folic acid (A) is not directly related to the treatment of hypoparathyroidism. Potassium (B) is not typically prescribed for this condition and can be harmful in high levels. Iron (D) is not directly involved in calcium metabolism and is not part of the standard treatment regimen for hypoparathyroidism.