Upon taking the popliteal blood pressure of a patient with unilateral distal limb pain, the physical therapist notes that the popliteal pulse is easily palpable (compared to the nonsymptomatic side) and that the blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg (upper limb reading 145/90 mm Hg). Which one of the following pathologies should be ruled out before proceeding with the rest of the physical examination?

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Psychobiologic Disorders Med Surg 2 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Upon taking the popliteal blood pressure of a patient with unilateral distal limb pain, the physical therapist notes that the popliteal pulse is easily palpable (compared to the nonsymptomatic side) and that the blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg (upper limb reading 145/90 mm Hg). Which one of the following pathologies should be ruled out before proceeding with the rest of the physical examination?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Popliteal aneurysm. Popliteal aneurysm is a potentially serious condition that can lead to compression of surrounding structures, including the popliteal artery. In this case, the easily palpable popliteal pulse and the lower blood pressure in the affected lower limb suggest a potential obstruction or dilation of the popliteal artery, which could be indicative of a popliteal aneurysm. This condition needs to be ruled out urgently due to the risk of complications such as thrombosis or rupture. Choice A: Deep venous thrombosis is unlikely in this case as there are no signs or symptoms suggestive of venous thrombosis, and the presence of a palpable pulse indicates arterial involvement. Choice B: Restless leg syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by an uncontrollable urge to move the legs, and it does not present with the physical findings described in the scenario. Choice D: Femoral artery occlusion is

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is interviewing a client on the psychiatric unit. The client tilts his head to the side, stops talking in midsentence, and listens intently. The nurse recognizes these behaviors as a symptom of the client's illness. The most appropriate nursing intervention for this symptom is to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the client to describe what he is hearing. This intervention is appropriate because the client is displaying auditory hallucinations, a common symptom in psychiatric disorders. By asking the client to describe what he is hearing, the nurse can gather important information about the nature and content of the hallucinations, which can guide further assessment and treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because the client is not displaying physical symptoms that need immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect as benztropine is typically used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, not auditory hallucinations. Choice D is also incorrect as calling the physician for additional orders may not address the immediate need to assess and address the auditory hallucinations.

Question 3 of 5

Patterns of inner experience and behavior are thought to reflect the presence of a psychological disorder if they

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

Dr. Anastasia believes that major depressive disorder is caused by an over-secretion of cortisol. His view on the cause of major depressive disorder reflects a perspective.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

Research indicates that the symptoms of OCD

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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