Upon history-taking, the nurse notes that the cough of a patient with lung cancer usually STARTS off to be ___________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The cough of a patient with lung cancer typically starts off as dry and persistent. This is because lung cancer can irritate the airways, leading to a persistent dry cough as an early symptom. As the cancer progresses, the cough may become more productive with blood-tinged or dark yellow sputum. However, in the early stages, the cough is often dry and persistent, which can be a warning sign for healthcare providers to further investigate potential underlying issues such as lung cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The response indicating Annie's present condition would be option A. This is because the symptoms mentioned in option A, such as experiencing vertigo, nausea, and nystagmus when sitting, point towards a vestibular disorder. These are symptoms commonly associated with conditions like Meniere's disease or vestibular neuritis, which can cause balance issues and feelings of dizziness. These symptoms are more indicative of Annie's current health status compared to the other options which focus on past or unrelated issues, such as ear pain during travel or impaired hearing since birth. The information provided in option A gives a more direct insight into Annie's present condition, making it the most appropriate response.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate action for a nurse in this situation is to request the senior nurse to read the illegible order for clarification. It is essential to ensure accurate and safe patient care by confirming the correct interpretation of the order with a colleague familiar with the handwriting. This action helps prevent errors and misunderstandings that may occur due to illegible handwriting. Consulting with the senior nurse is a common practice in healthcare settings to maintain effective communication and avoid mistakes in patient care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic effects, which can lead to various cardiovascular side effects, including orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and potential hypertension. While hypotension is a possible adverse effect, hypertension is more commonly associated with TCAs. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the patient for signs of hypertension, such as elevated blood pressure readings, to prevent any adverse outcomes and ensure the patient's safety while on this medication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers are often prescribed for the management of hypertension because they can help relax blood vessels and slow the heart rate, thus reducing blood pressure. One of the major adverse effects associated with calcium channel blockers is bradycardia (slow heart rate) or even more rarely, tachycardia (fast heart rate). Therefore, in a patient prescribed a calcium channel blocker for hypertension, the nurse should closely monitor for any signs and symptoms of tachycardia as it can be a serious adverse effect that needs prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rhinitis is inflammation of the nasal mucosa, and common clinical manifestations include nasal congestion (blockage or stuffiness), rhinorrhea (runny nose), and sneezing. These symptoms are often present in both allergic and non-allergic rhinitis. While headaches, sore throat, and fever can occur in some cases, they are not as specific to rhinitis as nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and sneezing.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Before any procedure, it is crucial to ensure that you have the proper authorization and guidelines in place. By checking the physician's order and the patient care plan, you confirm that suctioning is indeed needed and that you follow the specific instructions for that patient. This step helps ensure patient safety and effective care delivery. Once you have verified this information, you can proceed with gathering equipment, performing hand hygiene, and assessing the patient's condition as necessary.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with acute gastrointestinal bleeding requiring urgent intervention, the healthcare team should prioritize performing endoscopic hemostasis with mechanical or thermal techniques. Endoscopy allows for direct visualization of the source of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, enabling targeted interventions such as clipping, cauterization, or injection of epinephrine to achieve hemostasis. This approach is effective in managing acute bleeds and can help stop the bleeding quickly, reducing the need for more invasive procedures or surgeries. Administering proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may be considered for acid-related bleeding, but it is not the primary intervention for acute bleeding requiring urgent management. Strict bed rest may not be necessary and can increase the risk of complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma may be indicated if there is evidence of coagulopathy, but addressing the bleeding source should be the initial priority to

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The diagnosis of contact latex allergy is primarily based on the patient's history of exposure to latex-containing products and the development of symptoms upon contact with latex. To confirm the diagnosis, skin patch testing is performed. Skin patch testing exposes the skin to small amounts of latex allergens to observe for any localized allergic reaction, such as redness, swelling, or itchiness. This test helps determine if the individual has developed a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to latex. Latex-specific IgE testing (choice A) and finding IgE in serum (choice B) are methods used in diagnosing immediate-type latex allergy but are not sufficient for confirming contact latex allergy specifically. ELISA (choice D) is a type of laboratory technique used for various purposes, including measuring the levels of specific substances in the blood, but it is not typically used as a diagnostic tool for contact latex allergy.