ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology Slideshare Questions
Question 1 of 5
Unwanted effects of plicamycin (formerly mithramycin) are the following, EXEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fractures. Plicamycin is not known to cause fractures. Thrombocytopenia, GI toxicity, and bleeding disorders are potential unwanted effects of plicamycin due to its impact on bone marrow and gastrointestinal tract. It is crucial to recognize that fractures are not a documented side effect of plicamycin, making option D the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
Characteristics of Amfotericin B are following, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Does not demonstrate nephrotoxicity." Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. This is a well-documented side effect of the drug. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Amphotericin B is indeed used for systemic mycosis treatment, poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, and influences the permeability of fungus cell membrane, making them true characteristics of the drug.
Question 3 of 5
Tick the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Tetracyclins are known to have antimalarial properties by inhibiting protein synthesis in Plasmodium species. Step 2: Aminoglycosides (choice A) primarily target bacteria, not parasites like malaria. Step 3: Carbapenems (choice C) and Penicillins (choice D) are both beta-lactam antibiotics that have no significant antimalarial effects. Summary: Tetracyclins are the correct choice as they directly target malaria parasites, while the other options do not possess antimalarial properties.
Question 4 of 5
Methotrexate is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist. It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, leading to decreased DNA synthesis. This action makes it effective in treating cancer and autoimmune diseases. Purine antagonists target purine synthesis, antibiotics act on bacterial growth, and alkylating agents damage DNA to prevent cell division. Methotrexate's mechanism aligns with folic acid antagonism, making option B the correct choice.
Question 5 of 5
A 46-year-old man underwent surgery to remove a glioma of the left brain lobe. An intravenous infusion of a drug was started to induce controlled hypotension to minimize blood loss during surgery. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate for this purpose?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nitroprusside. Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator that can rapidly induce controlled hypotension by relaxing smooth muscle in blood vessels. This helps in minimizing blood loss during surgery. Labetalol (A) is a non-selective beta-blocker with alpha-blocking activity, which may not provide rapid hypotension. Hydralazine (B) is a direct vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia and may not be as effective in controlled hypotension. Nifedipine (C) is a calcium channel blocker primarily used for hypertension but does not provide rapid hypotension like nitroprusside.