ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment 9th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Unilateral rhinitis could be caused by all of the following except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A deviated septum. Unilateral rhinitis typically refers to inflammation in one nostril. A deviated septum is a physical obstruction in the nasal passage that affects both nostrils, not just one. Choices A, B, and C can all cause unilateral rhinitis as they specifically affect one side of the nasal passage. A foreign body in the nasal canal, a nasal polyp, and drug-induced rhinitis can all lead to inflammation and symptoms in one nostril.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with decreased hearing related to antibiotic use. Which class of antibiotics is this?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aminoglycosides. Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, resulting in decreased hearing. They are known to damage the sensory cells in the inner ear. Beta-lactams (B) and Cephalosporins (C) are not associated with hearing loss. Macrolides (D) can rarely cause hearing loss but are not as commonly linked to ototoxicity as aminoglycosides.
Question 3 of 5
The medication that blocks the transportation of glucose across the intestines into the bloodstream to target prandial blood glucose is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acarbose (Precose). Acarbose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that blocks the breakdown of carbohydrates into glucose in the intestines, reducing glucose absorption and lowering postprandial blood glucose levels. Metformin (A) works by decreasing glucose production in the liver. Rosiglitazone (C) is a thiazolidinedione that improves insulin sensitivity. Glipizide (D) is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas. Acarbose specifically targets postprandial blood glucose by blocking glucose absorption in the intestines.
Question 4 of 5
The addition of benzoyl peroxide to erythromycin for the topical treatment of acne:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Benzoyl peroxide has antibacterial properties. 2. Combining benzoyl peroxide with erythromycin reduces bacterial resistance. 3. This combination therapy prevents the development of resistance to erythromycin. 4. Therefore, the risk of resistance to erythromycin is decreased. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as benzoyl peroxide does not directly improve the efficacy of erythromycin. - Choice B is incorrect as desquamation is not directly affected by the addition of benzoyl peroxide. - Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that benzoyl peroxide increases the time a patient can be exposed to sunlight.
Question 5 of 5
The most appropriate medication indicated for reversing the anticoagulated effects of dabigatran etexilate (Pradaxa) is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Idarucizumab is a specific reversal agent for dabigatran, directly binding to dabigatran to neutralize its anticoagulant effects. 2. Vitamin K is ineffective for dabigatran reversal, as it mainly works on reversing the effects of vitamin K antagonist anticoagulants like warfarin. 3. Protamine sulfate is used for heparin reversal, not for direct thrombin inhibitor reversal like dabigatran. 4. Fondaparinux is a factor Xa inhibitor and not effective for reversing the effects of dabigatran.