Under which of the ff situations should a nurse notify the physician when caring for a client with lymphangitis? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Lymphangitis is an inflammation of lymphatic vessels. 2. If the affected area appears to enlarge, it indicates possible worsening or spreading of the infection. 3. Nurse should notify the physician for further evaluation and treatment. 4. Red streaks extending up the arm or leg (B) are common signs of lymphangitis, not necessarily requiring immediate physician notification. 5. Additional lymph nodes becoming (C) is a normal response to infection and may not warrant immediate physician notification. 6. Liver and spleen enlargement (D) are not directly related to lymphangitis and do not require immediate notification.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The modified Trendelenburg position involves placing the client with their legs elevated higher than their head. This position promotes venous return to the heart, increasing preload and cardiac output, thereby leading to an increase in blood pressure. Elevating the legs helps to reduce peripheral edema and improve circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because the Trendelenburg position does not directly affect the respiratory rate. Choice C is incorrect as the position is not intended to increase heart rate but rather improve venous return. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of the Trendelenburg position is not to decrease blood loss, although it may help in some cases by improving circulation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH (antidiuretic hormone), leading to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps retain water by reducing urine output. Administering vasopressin helps manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. B: Regular insulin is used to manage diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used to increase urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. D: 10% dextrose is a form of glucose and is not indicated in the treatment of diabetes insipidus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Neomycin is given preoperatively to decrease and retard the growth of normal bacteria in the intestines. This helps reduce the risk of infection during surgery by minimizing the number of bacteria present in the colon. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because Neomycin is not given to prevent infection postoperatively, eliminate the need for preoperative enemas, or treat cancer of the colon. The main purpose of administering Neomycin in this scenario is to create a sterile surgical field by reducing the normal flora in the intestines.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal failure. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) can lead to hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis, causing decreased perfusion to the kidneys and potentially leading to renal failure. Monitoring for signs of renal failure, such as decreased urine output and elevated creatinine levels, is crucial in managing clients with ARDS. Incorrect choices: A: Chest wall bulging is not a common complication of ARDS. It may be seen in conditions like tension pneumothorax. C: Difficulty swallowing is not a typical complication of ARDS. It may be seen in neurological conditions or esophageal disorders. D: Orthopnea is not a direct complication of ARDS. It is more commonly associated with heart failure or pulmonary edema.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. This client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer due to nulliparity, which is a known risk factor. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. Other choices are incorrect because contraceptives actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, having children can slightly decrease the risk, and having a child at a young age does not increase the risk significantly.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking a laxative like Senokot can affect the results of an IVP by altering bowel motility and potentially causing inaccurate imaging. Choice B is related to bladder sensation, which is not directly relevant to an IVP. Choice C indicates a possible allergic reaction to mussels, which is unrelated to the procedure. Choice D mentions headaches, which are also not directly linked to an IVP. In summary, only choice A directly impacts the accuracy of the IVP results, making it the most concerning statement for Nurse Aura.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral vision. When testing visual fields, the nurse evaluates the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight, which is indicative of peripheral vision. Peripheral vision helps detect objects and movement in the side vision. Distance vision (B) refers to the ability to see clearly at a distance, while near vision (C) pertains to close-up vision. Central vision (D) is essential for focusing on details and seeing straight ahead. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it specifically pertains to the assessment of visual fields.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Toni's behavior of minimizing her visual problems, focusing on future goals, seeking information about job opportunities, and expressing desire for more children reflects coping mechanisms used to deal with the exacerbation of her illness. This behavior suggests that she is trying to maintain a sense of normalcy and control in the face of her health challenges. A: Inappropriate euphoria is excessive happiness or excitement, which is not evident in Toni's behavior. C: Remission phase typically involves a decrease in symptoms, which is not reflected in Toni's situation. D: Realistic for her current level of physical functioning does not explain her behavior as coping mechanisms.