Under which of the ff situations should a nurse notify the physician when caring for a client with lymphangitis? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Lymphangitis is an inflammation of lymphatic vessels. 2. If the affected area appears to enlarge, it indicates possible worsening or spreading of the infection. 3. Nurse should notify the physician for further evaluation and treatment. 4. Red streaks extending up the arm or leg (B) are common signs of lymphangitis, not necessarily requiring immediate physician notification. 5. Additional lymph nodes becoming (C) is a normal response to infection and may not warrant immediate physician notification. 6. Liver and spleen enlargement (D) are not directly related to lymphangitis and do not require immediate notification.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because testicular cancer is indeed a highly curable type of cancer if detected early through self-examinations. This empowers the client to take control of their health. Choice B is incorrect as testicular cancer is detectable through self-examinations. Choice C is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the number one cause of cancer deaths in males; it is relatively rare. Choice D is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bowling with the team after discharge promotes social interaction and physical activity, addressing both the diversional activity deficit and the decreased energy. Playing card games (A) may not involve physical activity. Taking a long trip (B) may be overwhelming and tiring. Eating in a restaurant daily (D) does not address the need for meaningful activities or social interaction.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. This client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer due to nulliparity, which is a known risk factor. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. Other choices are incorrect because contraceptives actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, having children can slightly decrease the risk, and having a child at a young age does not increase the risk significantly.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sigmoidoscopy. This procedure allows direct visualization of the lower colon and rectum, enabling the detection of colorectal cancer. Stool hematest (A) detects blood in the stool but does not confirm cancer. Abdominal CT (B) can show abnormalities but is not specific for colorectal cancer. CEA scan (C) measures a tumor marker but is not definitive for diagnosis. Sigmoidoscopy (D) is the gold standard for diagnosing colorectal cancer as it allows for direct visualization and tissue biopsy.