UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis for the homeless male with symptoms of roseolo-petechiae rash, hyperemia, tachycardia, splenomegaly, and euphoria is Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection commonly associated with exposure to contaminated water or soil, which is prevalent in homeless populations. The initial diagnosis of "influenza" fits with the flu-like symptoms. The appearance of roseolo-petechiae rash and other symptoms like hyperemia, tachycardia, splenomegaly, and euphoria are consistent with leptospirosis. The other choices can be ruled out: A) Typhus typically presents with headache, fever, and rash, but not the specific symptoms described. B) Alcoholic delirium is more likely with a history of alcohol abuse and presents with confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations. D) Abdominal typhoid presents with prolonged fever, abdominal pain

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity response to tuberculosis. Step 2: A negative result means no significant immune response to TB antigens. Step 3: Option A is incorrect, as it refers to antitoxic immunity, not cell immunity. Step 4: Option B is incorrect, as it mentions antibodies, not cell-mediated immunity. Step 5: Option C is incorrect, as it states absence of antibodies, not cell immunity. Step 6: Option D is correct as it directly correlates with the purpose of Mantoux test.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: microvilli. Pili are hair-like structures found on the surface of some bacteria, while microvilli are microscopic cellular projections that increase surface area for absorption in cells like intestinal cells. Pili are involved in bacterial adhesion, while microvilli are important for nutrient absorption. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Incorrect choices: A: Fimbriae are short, thin appendages found on the surface of some bacteria, mainly used for adhesion. C: Cilia are hair-like structures found on the surface of some eukaryotic cells, often involved in movement or sensory functions. D: Flagella are long, whip-like appendages used for bacterial motility.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because live vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent form, although this is extremely rare. This is due to the live attenuated virus in the vaccine potentially mutating back to a more dangerous form. Live vaccines are designed to be weakened but there is a small risk of reversion. Therefore, statement B is not correct. A: This statement is correct as immunocompromised individuals may have adverse reactions to live vaccines due to their weakened immune system. C: This statement is correct as microbes with many serotypes can make it challenging to develop a vaccine that covers all variations. D: This statement is correct as side effects to vaccination, although usually mild and temporary, can occur in some individuals.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Answer B, Infectious mononucleosis, is not caused by enteroviruses. Infectious mononucleosis is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, a member of the herpesvirus family, not by enteroviruses. Enteroviruses are known to cause diseases such as myocarditis, herpangina, and Boston exanthema. Therefore, B is the correct answer. Myocarditis, herpangina, and Boston exanthema can all be caused by enteroviruses, making choices A, C, and D incorrect, respectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a preparation that contains inactivated toxins produced by the anthrax-causing bacteria. By administering anatoxin, the population can develop immunity against the toxin without being exposed to the live bacteria. This specific prophylaxis approach helps prevent the development of anthrax infection by targeting the toxin itself. Summary: - Choice B (Inactivated vaccine) is incorrect because an inactivated vaccine typically contains killed or inactivated whole bacteria, not just the toxins. - Choice C (Chemical vaccine) is incorrect as there is no such thing as a chemical vaccine; vaccines are biological preparations. - Choice D (Genetically engineered vaccine) is incorrect because while vaccines can be genetically engineered, the specific term "genetically engineered vaccine" does not accurately describe the prophylaxis used against anthrax in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (A and B both). In viral multiplication, the presence of a specific cytopathic effect (CPE) in cell culture indicates viral replication. This is detected visually through changes in cell morphology. Additionally, immunofluorescence detection methods can be used to detect viral antigens within infected cells, confirming viral multiplication. Options C is incorrect as viral colonies are not typically used to detect viral multiplication in cell culture. Option B alone is not sufficient as it only focuses on immunofluorescence detection, while option A alone may not always be specific. Therefore, the combination of A and B provides a more comprehensive and accurate detection method for viral multiplication in cell culture.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxidation. Phase I reactions in biotransformation involve introducing or unmasking functional groups through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Oxidation reactions typically involve the addition of an oxygen atom or removal of hydrogen atoms, making them common phase I reactions. In this process, enzymes like cytochrome P450 play a crucial role in catalyzing the oxidation reactions. Conjugation (B), acetylation (C), and glucuronidation (D) are all examples of phase II reactions, which involve the conjugation of the drug or metabolite with endogenous compounds to increase water solubility for excretion. These reactions typically follow phase I reactions and are not classified as phase I reactions in biotransformation.