ATI RN
Questions On The Urinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Tumor syndrome strongly associated with genitourinary malignancies is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC/Lynch) strongly links to GU cancers (e.g., ureter, bladder) mismatch repair defects. FAP ties to colon, not GU adenomas. Li-Fraumeni (p53) hits soft tissue, not GU-specific. MEN I (pituitary, pancreas) lacks GU focus endocrine. HNPCC's GU association distinguishes it, critical for urologic tumor risk, unlike colon, broad, or endocrine syndromes.
Question 2 of 5
A 55 years of old male presented with swelling over mid shaft of penis with occasional hematuria. On evaluation urothelial carcinoma of urethra with involvement of corpus cavernosum was found. No any lymph node involvement. The best first line treatment option for him is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Urethral urothelial carcinoma with cavernosal invasion (T3) but no nodes favors chemoradiotherapy ± surgery organ-sparing, controls local disease. Cystectomy is bladder-focused mismatch. Systemic therapy suits metastasis none here. Partial urethrectomy/penectomy lacks depth control insufficient. Chemoradiotherapy's balance distinguishes it, key to T3 urethral cancer, unlike bladder, metastatic, or limited approaches.
Question 3 of 5
Minimal change Nephrotic Syndrome is characterized by all except
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) features generalized edema, hyperlipidemia, and ascites protein loss drives hypoalbuminemia/fluid shifts. Pulmonary edema isn't typical cardiac/volume overload, not MCNS hallmark. Edema is peripheral/ascitic hypoalbuminemia-driven. Hyperlipidemia compensates protein loss classic. Ascites reflects fluid shift common. Pulmonary exclusion distinguishes MCNS, key to its presentation, unlike cardiac overlap.
Question 4 of 5
Malignant Pheochromocytoma most commonly metastasizes to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Malignant pheochromocytoma favors bone metastasis osteolytic spread (e.g., spine) is commonest. Liver and lungs occur less frequent. Lymph nodes spread but trail bone regional first. Bone's predominance distinguishes it, key to its metastatic pattern, unlike visceral or nodal sites.
Question 5 of 5
The most reliable clinical sign of Torsion Testes is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Absent cremasteric reflex is most reliable for testicular torsion lost ipsilateral reflex (stroke scrotum, no testis rise) signals torsion's nerve disruption. Prehn's (pain relief lifting) is inconsistent variable. Transverse lie suggests torsion less specific. Swelling/oedema/tenderness are late non-diagnostic alone. Reflex absence distinguishes it, critical for acute diagnosis, unlike pain, position, or swelling signs.